zoobyshoe
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I couldn't follow the reasoning in the study about hippocampal atrophy. They start by proposing it is a cause of schizophrenia and depressive disorders and to check this they suddenly switch to studying epileptics? The epileptics are compared against a control group without hippocampal atrophy, but who rank high in "psychopathology". What does that mean? What was wrong with them? Why were they the control for epileptics in a study supposedly about schizophrenia and depressive illness?
The point that bilateral hippocampal atrophy may be the cause of Geschwind's is clear. The rest of it confused me.
At any rate, to the extent that the Lymes encephalopathy can mimic Geschwind's, but also be cured, it might be safe to start speculating that the encephalopathy incapacitates the hippocampi in the same way atrophy does, without causing the actual permanent damage of atrophy. I'm glad that can be cured, even after people have had it for years (the Lymes).
-Zooby
The point that bilateral hippocampal atrophy may be the cause of Geschwind's is clear. The rest of it confused me.
At any rate, to the extent that the Lymes encephalopathy can mimic Geschwind's, but also be cured, it might be safe to start speculating that the encephalopathy incapacitates the hippocampi in the same way atrophy does, without causing the actual permanent damage of atrophy. I'm glad that can be cured, even after people have had it for years (the Lymes).
-Zooby