Inverse Function: Condition for f^(-1) and Example

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The condition for a function to possess an inverse, denoted as f^(-1), is that the function must be one-to-one. The example function f(x) = x^2 - 5 is not one-to-one over its entire domain, resulting in an inverse that is not a function, as it yields two values for each x. However, by restricting the domain, such as f:[0,1] → [-5,-4], the function can have a valid inverse. Conversely, f:[-1,1] → [-5,-4] does not yield a valid inverse due to the same issue of multiple outputs for a single input.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of one-to-one functions
  • Familiarity with function notation and mappings
  • Knowledge of domain and codomain concepts
  • Basic algebraic manipulation skills
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of one-to-one functions in detail
  • Learn how to determine the inverse of functions with restricted domains
  • Explore the concept of piecewise functions and their inverses
  • Investigate the implications of codomain restrictions on function inverses
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, educators, students studying calculus or algebra, and anyone interested in understanding the conditions for function inverses.

thereddevils
Messages
436
Reaction score
0
The condition for the inverse function, f^(-1) to happen is function , f is one-one .

S0 consider this function , f(x)=x^2-5 , which is NOT a one-one function , and

f^(-1)=y

x=f(y)

x=y^2-5

y^2=x+5

[tex]f^{-1}(x)=\pm\sqrt{x+5}[/tex]

Seems that the inverse function of f exists without satisfying that condition .
 
Physics news on Phys.org
That inverse function you found is not even a function. For every x there are two values of y. For it to be a function there can only be one value of y for every x.

Secondly f(x) in general is not a function, but just a number in its codomain. Your function f is given by [itex]f:A\rightarrow B, f(x)=x^2-5[/itex]. With A its domain and B its codomain. Depending on A and B f can have an inverse.

example:

[tex] f:[0,1] \rightarrow [-5,-4]; f(x)=x^2-5[/tex]

this function has an inverse.

[tex] f:[-1,1] \rightarrow [-5,-4]; f(x)=x^2-5[/tex]

this one does not.
 
Cyosis said:
That inverse function you found is not even a function. For every x there are two values of y. For it to be a function there can only be one value of y for every x.

Secondly f(x) in general is not a function, but just a number in its codomain. Your function f is given by [itex]f:A\rightarrow B, f(x)=x^2-5[/itex]. With A its domain and B its codomain. Depending on A and B f can have an inverse.

example:

[tex] f:[0,1] \rightarrow [-5,-4]; f(x)=x^2-5[/tex]

this function has an inverse.

[tex] f:[-1,1] \rightarrow [-5,-4]; f(x)=x^2-5[/tex]

this one does not.


thanks ! I just realized it can have inverse when its broken into half .
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
4K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 23 ·
Replies
23
Views
4K
Replies
8
Views
5K