Is a finite semigroup isomorphic to subsets of some group?

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Stephen Tashi
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Finite Group Subsets
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

Any finite semigroup that can be embedded in a group is already a group. This conclusion is based on the properties of cancellative semigroups, which must satisfy the condition that if ##ax = bx##, then ##a = b##. For abelian semigroups, the Grothendieck construction provides an explicit group in which the semigroup can be embedded, establishing an equivalence. However, semigroups formed from subsets of groups may not retain the cancellative property, particularly when including the empty set, which acts as a zero element.

PREREQUISITES
  • Cancellative semigroups
  • Abelian groups
  • Grothendieck construction
  • Set multiplication in group theory
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of cancellative semigroups in detail
  • Explore the Grothendieck construction and its applications
  • Investigate the implications of embedding semigroups in groups
  • Examine the behavior of set multiplication in the context of group theory
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, particularly those specializing in algebra and group theory, as well as students and researchers interested in the properties of semigroups and their relationship to groups.

Stephen Tashi
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
Education Advisor
Messages
7,864
Reaction score
1,605
Is any given finite semigroup isomorphic to some finite semigroup S that consists of some subsets of some finite group G under the operation of set multiplication defined in the usual way? (i.e. the product of two subsets A,B of G is the set consisting of all (and only) those elements of G that result from multiplying some element in A times some element in B using the group operation defined on G).
 
Physics news on Phys.org
A necessary condition is of course that the semigroup is cancellative, since groups have this property: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cancellative_semigroup So this means that ##ax = bx## implies ##a=b## and ##xa = xb## also implies ##a=b##.

If the semigroup is abelian, then the Grothendieck construction gives an explicit group where-in the semigroup is embedded. So for abelian semigroups, this is an equivalence.

Now, it turns out that any finite cancellative semigroup is already a group. So the answer to your question is that any finite semigroup that can be embedded in a group, is already a group. The latter is easily seen directly: let ##G## be a group and let ##S## be an embedded semigroup. Take an element ##a\in S##, then

\{a,a^2,a^3,a^4,...\}\subseteq S

Since ##S## is finite, there exists some ##n\neq m## such that ##a^n = a^m##. Say that ##n>m##, then ##e = a^{n-m}\in S##. Furthermore, ##a^{n-m-1}## is also in ##S## and this is an inverse.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
That was a very useful reply - and quick too!

I'm not clear yet on what an "embedding" must be and whether my question is more general than asking for an embedding.

micromass said:
A necessary condition is of course that the semigroup is cancellative, since groups have this property: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cancellative_semigroup So this means that ##ax = bx## implies ##a=b## and ##xa = xb## also implies ##a=b##.

I agree that groups have the cancellative property, but does a semigroup whose elements are subsets of group (rather than being necessarily single elements of the group) have the property? For example, the usual definition for multiplying sets of group elements would make \emptyset behave like a zero element. The presence of a zero would screw up cancellation.
 
So you have a group ##G##, and you take ##\mathcal{P}(G)## and you put a product on there that says ##AB = \{ab~\vert~a\in A,~b\in B\}##? Then no, this does not have the cancellative property since ##GG = G = \{e\} G##.

I don't know the answer to your question. But it is important to note that the subsets of some group have a partial ordering relation given by ##\subseteq##, such that if ##H\subseteq H^\prime##, then ##HK\subseteq H^\prime K##. So the order agrees with the multiplication operation.

So any semigroup that is isomorphic to the subsets of some group would have to admit such an order relation.

For abelian groups we can even say more and we can add that any two elements under the order relation must have a supremum.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 26 ·
Replies
26
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
10K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
4K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K