Is Adding Even Numbers to Fractions Enough to Prove Countable Infinity?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the set of fractions \( q \in \mathbb{Q} : q = \frac{a}{b} \) where \( a \) is even and \( b \) is odd is countably infinite. Participants confirm that since \( \mathbb{Q} \) is countably infinite, any subset, including the specified fractions, is also countably infinite. The "swan-walk" method is introduced as a systematic way to enumerate fractions, demonstrating a bijective function from integers to rational numbers. To establish the set's infinitude, it is essential to identify an infinite number of distinct elements within the defined constraints.

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  • Understanding of rational numbers and their properties.
  • Familiarity with the concept of countable infinity.
  • Knowledge of bijective functions and their significance in set theory.
  • Basic understanding of enumeration techniques, such as the "swan-walk" method.
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  • Study the properties of rational numbers and their subsets.
  • Learn about the "swan-walk" enumeration technique in detail.
  • Explore proofs of countable infinity for various mathematical sets.
  • Investigate methods to demonstrate the infinitude of specific subsets of rational numbers.
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Mathematicians, students of mathematics, and anyone interested in set theory and the properties of rational numbers will benefit from this discussion.

JProgrammer
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I am trying to prove how this set is countably infinite:

q∈Q:q=a/b where a is even and b is odd

a needs to be even and b needs to be odd, so I thought this would prove that it would be countably infinite:

q = a/b + x/x, where x is any even number.

a always needs to be even and b always needs to be odd, so if they have the value of x added to them with x being any even number, they would always be positive or negative.

My question is: is this enough to prove that this set is countably infinite? If not, what do I need to do?
 
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JProgrammer said:
I am trying to prove how this set is countably infinite:

q∈Q:q=a/b where a is even and b is odd

a needs to be even and b needs to be odd, so I thought this would prove that it would be countably infinite:

q = a/b + x/x, where x is any even number.

a always needs to be even and b always needs to be odd, so if they have the value of x added to them with x being any even number, they would always be positive or negative.

My question is: is this enough to prove that this set is countably infinite? If not, what do I need to do?

Hey JProgrammer! ;)

How about proving that $\mathbb Q$ is countably infinite to begin with?
So any subset would be countably infinite as well.

Have you heard of the "swan-walk"?
That is, we run through all fractions in the following order:
$$\frac 11, \frac 21, \frac 12, \frac 13, \frac 22, \frac 31, \frac 41, \frac 32, \frac 23, \frac 14, \frac 15, ...$$
This is the swan walk. Its meaning will be apparent if we visualize it in X-Y coordinates.
It shows that we can iterate through all fractions in a countable fashion.
Put otherwise, we have a bijective function $\mathbb Z \to \mathbb Q$, proving that $\mathbb Q$ is countable... (Thinking)
 
I like Serena said:
Hey JProgrammer! ;)

How about proving that $\mathbb Q$ is countably infinite to begin with?
So any subset would be countably infinite as well.

Have you heard of the "swan-walk"?
That is, we run through all fractions in the following order:
$$\frac 11, \frac 21, \frac 12, \frac 13, \frac 22, \frac 31, \frac 41, \frac 32, \frac 23, \frac 14, \frac 15, ...$$
This is the swan walk. Its meaning will be apparent if we visualize it in X-Y coordinates.
It shows that we can iterate through all fractions in a countable fashion.
Put otherwise, we have a bijective function $\mathbb Z \to \mathbb Q$, proving that $\mathbb Q$ is countable... (Thinking)

Thanks for your reply.

I have heard of this before, but I wasn't sure if it would work for this problem because a needs to be even and b needs to be odd. This would work for this problem?

Since this set has been proven to be countable, it needs to be proven to be infinite. How would I prove that?
 
I like Serena said:
How about proving that $\mathbb Q$ is countably infinite to begin with?
So any subset would be countably infinite as well.
Well, this is an overstatement. (Smile)

JProgrammer said:
Since this set has been proven to be countable, it needs to be proven to be infinite. How would I prove that?
You need to find infinite number of different elements. This is not hard.
 
"b odd" includes b= 1 so the set of all even integers is a subset.
 

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