PeterDonis said:
No, that is not the assumption that the complete argument starts with. Please go back and read my post #16. You apparently still have not fully grasped what I was saying in that post, so the structure of the actual argument is not the same as the structure of the argument you are thinking of and asking questions about.
Of course the argument starts with the assumption that the set of all infinite strings is countable. If it didn't, then it couldn't say "take the first digit of the first string, the second digit of the second string" and so on. The very fact that it's saying "first string", "second string" etc. is making the assumption that the set is countable, ie. enumerable, ie. that you can list them in order and say "this is the first one", "this is the second one" and so on. Isn't that
the very definition of "countable"?
The whole point of this proof by contradiction is to start with the assumption that this list has all the possible strings, ie. it's complete, and show that it leads to a contradiction. I cannot even begin to comprehend how you could even say "take the 158529th element in the list" if the set isn't countable. The very argument requires that every element has a position in the list, an index number. If every element has an index number, it's by definition countable, and directly mappable to the natural numbers.
So, I'm still thinking: If we start with the assumption that the set is countable, then from the perspective of the proof it shouldn't make a difference if we change the digits of each string, as long as they remain different from each other (ie. no two strings in the list become equal after we do this change). Why would it make a difference? I don't think the characteristics of the list changes by doing this (other than now pairs of elements might have changed order when compared for inequality).
If such change doesn't make a difference with respect to the proof, then it should likewise make no difference if we change all these infinite strings to finite ones: They still remain unique, and no two strings become equal. (We know they don't become equal if we assume that the set is countable, which is the assumption we started with.)
But now if we do that, the diagonalization becomes a bit moot. It's essentially just saying "this new set you just created contains no infinite strings", which is self-evident to the point of being tautological. (And, moreover, and incidentally, the diagonalization will produce a rational number, which ostensibly was in our original list.)
If the counter-argument is "you can't change all the infinite strings to finite ones in a unique way" then you'll have to explain why. And "because the set of all infinite strings is uncountable and thus not mappable to the natural numbers" is not a valid answer because it assumes what we are trying to prove in the first place. We cannot prove something by assuming what we are trying to prove.