DB said:
in ayn rand's philosophy of objectivism she says that a man's only absolute is his reason. Since no man has the exact same reasoning (or intuition) would this imply that mankind's reason is relative?
and if you were an objectivist, would that mean you would also be a relativist?thnx
Here are a few comments on your question.
1. It is not clear that Rand ever stated that a man's
only absolute is his reason--do you have a citation ? Rand spoke about many differ absolutes, for example she wrote " reality is an absolute...a speck of dust is an absolute...whether or not a man lives is an absolute"...etc. So, I would think that "reason" is not the
only absolute for Rand, just one of many.
2. As to the question "is reason relative", I would think that Rand would answer no. For Rand, "reason" (e.g., the concept) is defined as "the faculty that identifies and integrates the material provided by the senses". That is, all humans share a fundamental identity to integrate perceptions by means of forming abstractions and conceptions, all humans have the potential (or faculty) to reason, thus reason itself is not relative, it is an absolute faculty of the brains of all humans.
3. However, Rand also holds that "reason is a faculty that each man has to exercise by choice". Thinking is not an automatic function, thus in this way, perhaps one could suggest that the "process of reasoning" is "relative", that is, the quantity and quality of reasoning would differ from man to man.