MHB Is the expression $\frac{\gcd(m,n)}{n}\binom{n}{m}$ always an integer?

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The expression \(\frac{\gcd(m,n)}{n}\binom{n}{m}\) is shown to be an integer for all integer pairs \(n \geq m \geq 1\). The proof involves analyzing the properties of the greatest common divisor and the binomial coefficient. Participants discuss various approaches and insights related to the problem, referencing its origin in the 2000 William Lowell Putnam Mathematical Competition. Joypav is acknowledged for providing a correct solution to the problem. Overall, the discussion emphasizes the mathematical reasoning behind the integer nature of the expression.
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Here is this week's POTW:

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Prove that the expression
\[ \frac{\gcd(m,n)}{n}\binom{n}{m} \]
is an integer for all pairs of integers $n\geq m\geq 1$.

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Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
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Re: Problem Of The Week # 266 - Jun 05, 2017

This was Problem B-2 in the 2000 William Lowell Putnam Mathematical Competition.

Congratulations to joypav for his correct solution, which follows:

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