Is the Function \( f(x,y) \) Continuous on \( \mathbb{R}^2 \)?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the continuity of the function \( f(x,y) = \left\{\begin{matrix} e^{-1/|x-y|}, & x\neq y \\ 0, & x=y \end{matrix}\right. \) on \( \mathbb{R}^2 \). Participants explore the conditions under which the function is continuous, particularly focusing on the behavior as \( (x,y) \) approaches points where \( x = y \) and the implications of the exponential function's continuity.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests that since \( e^{-1/t} \) is continuous for \( t \neq 0 \), it follows that \( f(x,y) \) is continuous for \( x \neq y \), but seeks clarification on the case when \( x = y \).
  • Another participant emphasizes the need to show that \( \lim_{(x,y) \to (x_0,x_0)} f(x,y) = 0 \) for continuity at points where \( x = y \), providing a hint involving the inequality \( e^{-u} \leq \frac{1}{1+u} \) for non-negative \( u \).
  • A further reply points out a potential typo in the previous hint, suggesting that the inequality should apply for \( u \) close to \( 0 \).
  • Another participant proposes a method using the diagonal of \( \mathbb{R}^2 \) to analyze limits approaching \( (x_0,x_0) \) from different neighborhoods, concluding that all limits coincide at \( 0 \).
  • One participant reiterates the definition of continuity, focusing on the limit as \( |x - y| \to 0 \) and arguing that since \( f(x,x) = 0 \), it suffices to show that \( \lim_{|x - y| \to 0} f(x,y) = 0 \) to establish continuity.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the need to demonstrate continuity at points where \( x = y \) and discuss various approaches to proving this. However, there is no consensus on the best method or whether all proposed methods are correct.

Contextual Notes

Some participants' arguments depend on specific inequalities and limits, which may require further clarification or assumptions about the behavior of the function near the diagonal of \( \mathbb{R}^2 \). The discussion reflects a range of approaches to proving continuity without resolving the nuances of each method.

i_a_n
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Prove that
$f(x,y)=\left\{\begin{matrix}
e^{-1/|x-y|},x\neq y\\
0,x=y
\end{matrix}\right.$
is continuous on $\mathbb{R}^2$.

Can I conclude since $e^{-1/t}$ is continuous then for $x$,$y\in \mathbb{R}^2$, $x\neq y$,$e^{-1/|x-y|}$ is continuous on $\mathbb{R}^2$ since here $t=|x-y|$? And how to prove it when $x=y$, using the $\delta- \varepsilon$ way? Thank you a lot!
 
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Re: Prove a function is continuous

We have to show that the function is continuous at each point of $\Bbb R^2$. Your argument threats the case of points of the form $(x,y),x\neq y$. So now, fix $x_0$. We have to show that $\lim_{(x,y)\to (x_0,x_0)}=0$.

Hint: use $e^{-u}\leqslant \frac 1{1+u}$ for each non-negative real number $u$.
 
Last edited:
Re: Prove a function is continuous

girdav said:
Hint: use $e^{-u}\leqslant \frac 1{1+u}$ for each real number $u$.

Surely is a typo, I suppose you meant for each real number $u$ close to $0$.

Another way: denoting $\Delta=\{(t,t):t\in\mathbb{R}\}$ (diagonal of $\mathbb{R}^2$), in a neighborhood $V$ of $(0,0)$ we have:

$\displaystyle\lim_{(x,y)\to (x_0,x_0)\;,\;(x,y)\in V-\Delta}f(x,y)=\displaystyle\lim_{(x,y)\to (x_0,x_0)\;,\;(x,y)\in V-\Delta}e^{-\dfrac{1}{|x-y|}}=e^{-\infty}=0$

$\displaystyle\lim_{(x,y)\to (x_0,x_0)\;,\;(x,y)\in V\cap\Delta}f(x,y)=\displaystyle\lim_{(x,y)\to (x_0,x_0)\;,\;(x,y)\in V\cap\Delta}0=0$

In a finite partition of $V$ all the limits coincide, so $\displaystyle\lim_{(x,y)\to (x_0,x_0)}f(x,y)=0$ .
 
The definition of continuity for a function is {lim x-> a} f(x) = f(a). For this function we only need to worry about when |x - y| -> 0, since the exponential function is continuous everywhere. So in other words we need to show that
{lim |x - y|-> 0} f(x,y) = f(x,x) = f(y,y)
Now f(x,x) = f(y,y) = 0 so we just need to show that
{lim |x - y| -> 0} f(x,y) = 0.
Since |x - y| > 0, -1/|x - y| -> infinity so f(x,y) -> 0 and we're done.Is a proof like this correct?
 

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