MHB Is the Mapping (x,y) -> (u^2-v^2,2uv) Conformal Everywhere Except the Origin?

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    2015
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The mapping from (x,y) to (u^2-v^2, 2uv) is confirmed to be conformal everywhere except at the origin. The discussion highlights the need for a proof to establish this property. No responses were provided to the problem of the week, indicating a lack of engagement or understanding among participants. The original problem was sourced from Philip Exeter's Math Problems. The solution to the problem has been shared by a participant, contributing to the ongoing mathematical dialogue.
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Here is this week's POTW:

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I am indebted to Philip Exeter's Math Problems for the following problem. Prove that the mapping $(x,y)\mapsto (u^2-v^2,2uv)$ is conformal everywhere except the origin.

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Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
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No one answered this week's POTW. Here is my solution:

Note that if we let $z=u+iv$, then $z^2=u^2-v^2+2iuv$, and is an analytic function. Its derivative is $2z$, and so we see that $z^2$ is conformal everywhere except at the origin. But the real part of $z^2$ is the $x$-component of the function given, and the imaginary part of $z^2$ is the $y$-component of the function given. Therefore, the function given is conformal everywhere except at the origin.
 

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