Is the S-matrix in Weinberg's book always unitary?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the unitary nature of the S-matrix as described in Steven Weinberg's "Quantum Theory of Fields, Volume 1". Specifically, it addresses the equation S_{\beta\,\alpha}=\langle\Psi_{\beta}^-\mid\Psi_{\alpha}^+\rangle and the implications of the operator U(\Lambda, a) being unitary. The participant questions the validity of the identity U^{\dagger}U=1 when considering different states \Psi_{\alpha} and \Psi_{\beta}, suggesting that this leads to a contradiction in the context of Lorentz invariance and irreducible representations.

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eoghan
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Hi,
I've read a lot of posts about how Weinberg describes the S-matrix invariance in his book, but none of theme answered my questions.
At page 116, sec 3.3 - "Lorentz Invariance" of Quantum theory of fields vol.1 Weinberg says:
"Since the operator [itex]U(\Lambda, a)[/itex] is unitary we may write
[tex] S_{\beta\,\alpha}=\langle\Psi_{\beta}^-\mid\Psi_{\alpha}^+\rangle<br /> =\langle\Psi_{\beta}^- \mid U^{\dagger}U\mid \Psi_{\alpha}^+\rangle[/tex]
From this equation he gets some conditions that the S-matrix has to fulfill.
But if the operator [itex]U(\Lambda, a)[/itex] is unitary, then shouldn't be
[itex]U^{\dagger}U=1[/itex]?
And so the equation above is always satisfied no matter the form of the S matrix!
 
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Yes, this equation is an obvious identity. Lorentz invariance is the next assertion - that when you apply U to Ψ+ and Ψ- they transform as representations of the inhomogeneous Lorentz group (Eq. 3.1.1), leading to Eq 3.3.1.
 
Uhm... ok, but now another question arises...
[itex]U^{\dagger}U=1[/itex], but [itex]\Psi_{\alpha}[/itex] and [itex]\Psi_{\beta}[/itex]
are two different states, so they can transform with two different irreducible representations.
In that case [itex]U^{\dagger}[/itex] and [itex]U[/itex] are two matrices of different kind, so how can i say that [itex]U^{\dagger}U=1[/itex]?
 

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