Is the Wave Equation at Infinity Always Zero?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the wave equation and its behavior at infinity, specifically questioning whether the square of the wavefunction's norm at plus and minus infinity is also zero. This relates to concepts in quantum mechanics and probability interpretation of wavefunctions.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to clarify the implications of the wave equation being zero at infinity and questions if this extends to the square of the wavefunction's norm. Some participants explore the interpretation of the wavefunction's square as a probability measure, while others focus on the specific case of evaluating it at infinity.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing differing interpretations of the wavefunction's properties at infinity. Some guidance has been offered regarding the mathematical interpretation, but no consensus has been reached on the implications of the original poster's question.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the nuances of quantum mechanics and the definitions of probability related to wavefunctions. There is a focus on the specific context of evaluating properties at infinity, which may involve assumptions about the behavior of wavefunctions in that limit.

Niles
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Homework Statement


Hi all.

The wave equation at plus/minus infinity is zero:

[tex]\left. {\left| {\psi (x,t)} \right| } \right|_{ - \infty }^\infty= 0[/tex]

Does this also mean that:

[tex] \left. {\left| {\psi (x,t)} \right|^2} \right|_{ - \infty }^\infty=0 [/tex]
?
 
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no.

An interpretation of the square of the wavefunction is the probability of finding it somewhere; i.e.[tex]\int^{a}_{b}|\Psi(x,t)|^{2}dx[/tex] is the probability of finding the particle between a and b. you're looking at the probability of finding the particle inbetween +/-[tex]\infty[/tex]. I.e. anywhere.
 
I'm not talking about the integral, but only the square of the norm of it. So I am only looking at the probability of finding the particle at exactly + and - infinity.

Will this equal zero?
 
oh, yeah. 0 squared is zero.
 

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