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Is there a function that equals its Laplace transform?

  1. Apr 23, 2013 #1
    Google seems to provide not much information on this. In essence, I am asking about the eigenfunctions of the Laplace transform when λ=1? Anyone have any insights on this rather unusual problem?

    BiP
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 24, 2013 #2

    Simon Bridge

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  4. Apr 24, 2013 #3
    I agree in case of real function.
    In case of complex function, there are many solutions. For example, one of them :
     

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  5. Apr 24, 2013 #4

    Simon Bridge

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    Yike - well there you have it :)
     
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