I Is there any way to derive the time dilation formula?

Click For Summary
The discussion revolves around the derivation of the time dilation formula in special relativity, with a focus on avoiding special cases like the zig-zag motion of light in a light clock. One participant emphasizes that the standard derivation using a light clock seems limited and requests a more universal approach that does not rely on specific assumptions about the light's direction. Another contributor argues that proving time dilation for one type of clock suffices to establish it for all clocks, as time dilation is a fundamental aspect of physics, not just clock behavior. The conversation also touches on the relationship between time dilation and length contraction, suggesting that understanding one can aid in comprehending the other. Ultimately, the need for a more general derivation remains a point of contention.
  • #31
Prem1998 said:
I've already read the derivation in which we use the light pulse clock kept in a spacecraft such that the light pulse follows a zig-zag motion due to motion of the spacecraft being perpendicular to motion of the light pulse. Then, we apply Pythagoras theorem to derive the formula.
BUT this seems like derivation in a special case, not a universal derivation.

Further to my post #30, go-return or your "a zig-zag" path of light scheme seems essential to define time.
You prepare a measure and emit light and accept light that was reflected at the other end of the measure.
This procedure defines proper time interval of the observer, I think.

I think further
-Time cannot be defined on mathematical point of spacetime. We need space for light to go-return that we can set as small as we like theoretically.
-QM might say something on fundamental uncertainty of deciding time and also space that matters setting length and position of the measure used for time decision.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #32
Nugatory said:
It is enough - @pixel mentions this possibility in #22 above.
Funny thing, the light clock and the Pythagorean theorem is exactly how I derived the Lorentz factor for the very first time. But back then I thought special relativity was just taking a Newtonian physics relationship and multiplying it by the Lorentz factor, lol. Works for 3-momentum, though. ;). γ(u)mu
 

Similar threads

Replies
34
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
465
  • · Replies 60 ·
3
Replies
60
Views
5K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
662
Replies
27
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 58 ·
2
Replies
58
Views
5K
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
3K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K