Is this a valid inductive proof?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the validity of an inductive proof claiming that all numbers divisible by 4 are also divisible by 2. Participants are examining the structure and rigor of the proof presented, which involves defining a function and using base cases and inductive steps.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants question the completeness and rigor of the inductive proof, suggesting that it does not adequately utilize the inductive hypothesis. Others propose that a direct proof may be more suitable for this claim.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing examination of the proof's validity, with some participants providing feedback on specific steps and suggesting areas for improvement. The conversation includes attempts to clarify the reasoning behind the inductive steps and the necessity of justifying certain claims.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that the problem may not be well-suited for induction, indicating that the proof could be simplified. There is also mention of the need for more justification regarding the divisibility of terms in the inductive step.

mustang19
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Mentor note: moved to the homework section

Claim: all numbers divisible by 4 are divisible by 2.

Premise: let p(n) return 4n, I.e., the function covers all numbers divisible by four.

Reasoning:

Let n equal 1 in the base case

P(n) is divisible by 2

P(n+1) is divisible by 2

By induction all n are divisible by 2

QED
 
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I would say you have proved nothing.

This should be homework.
 
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PeroK said:
I would say you have proved nothing.

This should be homework.
Can you find an inductive proof that all numbers divisible by 4 are divisible by 2?
 
  • (*) For all n, 4n%2=0

  • Let n = 1. Then:

    • 4n%2 = 0
    So (*) works for n = 1.

    Assume, for n = k, that (*) holds; that is, that

    4k%2
  • = 4%2 times k%2 by distributive property
  • = 0 times k%2
  • = 0

  • Let n = k + 1.

    • 4(k+1)%2
    • = (4k+4)%2 by distributive property
    • = 4k%2 + 4%2 by distributive property
    • = 4k%2 + 0
    • = 4k%2
    • = 4%2 times k%2 by distributive property
    • = 0 times k%2
    • = 0
    Then (*) works for n = k + 1.
 
Last edited:
That's better, but it's still short of a rigorous proof, if that's what you are trying to do.

One problem is that your inductive step doesn't really use the inductive hypothesis.
You can do this because the proof doesn't need induction.
 
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mustang19 said:
Claim: all numbers divisible by 4 are divisible by 2.

Premise: let p(n) return 4n, I.e., the function covers all numbers divisible by four.

Reasoning:

Let n equal 1 in the base case

P(n) is divisible by 2

P(n+1) is divisible by 2

By induction all n are divisible by 2

QED
Following the same logic, all numbers divisible by 4 are smaller than 10.
Let n equal 1 in the base case.
P(n) is smaller than 10
P(n+1) is smaller than 10.
By induction all numbers divisible by 4 are smaller than 10.

This problem is not well suited for induction as the direct proof is much easier, even in the induction step.
mustang19 said:
4(k+1)%2 = 0
That's what you have to show.
 
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I know that, I just want to use an inductive proof. Can anyone find any for this problem or at least be specific?

I edited the proof to show how 4k%2 = 0
 
Last edited:
Your approach in post #4 is good, especially after the recent edit.
0 = (4k+4)%2
0 = 4k%2 + 4%2
This step could get some more justification or a reference to something shown before.
mustang19 said:
0= 4k%2
0= 4%2 times k%2
0= 0 times k%2
0= 0
The last 3 steps don't make sense, but you don't need them. The first line is your assumption for the inductive step.
 
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mustang19 said:
I know that, I just want to use an inductive proof. Can anyone find any for this problem or at least be specific?

I edited the proof to show how 4k%2 = 0
You need to justify why ##4(k+1)## is divisible by 2. If you claim this is obvious, then there is no purpose to the proof, as this is entirely what you are trying to prove.
 
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  • #10
PeroK said:
You need to justify why ##4(k+1)## is divisible by 2. If you claim this is obvious, then there is no purpose to the proof, as this is entirely what you are trying to prove.

I edited my post to include the distributive property. The tiny loops are not "0=", they are just artifacts.
 
  • #11
mustang19 said:
I edited my post to include the distributive property. The tiny loops are not "0=", they are just artifacts.
I think ##4(k+1) = 4k + 4 = 0 + 0 = 0 \mod 2## is simpler, where ##4k = 0 \mod 2## and ##4 = 0 \mod 2## follow from your inductive hypothesis and from the result for ##n =1##
 
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