Is Z0 Particle Real Without Flavor-Changing Interactions?

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AdvaitDhingra
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If there are no flavor changing z0 weak interactions, how do we even know that the particle exists? I thought that we could only tell which particle was exchanged by the particles it decays into. Is this wrong?
 
How would the absence of flavour changing Z0 interactions preclude the knowledge of its existence? You will still see the decays to particle-antiparticle pairs just the same. The cleanest way of producing Z0 is to collide electrons with positrons at the Z0 resonance.
 
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Orodruin said:
How would the absence of flavour changing Z0 interactions preclude the knowledge of its existence? You will still see the decays to particle-antiparticle pairs just the same. The cleanest way of producing Z0 is to collide electrons with positrons at the Z0 resonance.
Oh ok. So a z0 Boson interaction is one where charge is conserved? (since the z0 carries no charge)
 
Do you see a peak (Z) or not (no Z)?

Log-log plot of e+e- to hadrons cross-section (pb) against centre-of-mass energy (GeV) from 0 to 220, showing a sharp resonance peak labelled Z near 91 GeV with data points, and labelled collider regions including LEP I, LEP II, SLC and earlier machines.
 
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Charge is always conserved.

Flavor-changing Z interactions would allow e.g. electron plus antimuon to Z, or Z to these two particles. We don't observe that decay (experimental upper limit is ~10-6), but of course we see the flavor-conserving electron+positron->Z production (that's what we can actually collide in colliders) and the equally flavor-conserving decays to quark plus matching antiquark.