I Isotropy of the speed of light

andrew s 1905
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Can diffraction demonstrate the speed of light is isotropic.
It has been put to me that a simple spectroscope could in theory demonstrate the isotropy of the speed of light . By using a frequency standard (laser comb or Th Lamp for example) with the spectroscope in various orientations the lack of shift of the spectral lines would prove its isotropic via the relation c = λf.

I see it would rest on other assumptions of isotropy but, it does seem to escape the issue of Einstein's clock synchronization protocol by using a single clock.

If there are any theoretical errors in this proposal please point them out.

I have reviewed the discussions here https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/measuring-possible-one-way-anistropy-of-light-speed.803992/

Regards Andrew
 
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The Michelson interferometer will detect general anisotropy. The issue of one way anisotropy is different.
 
Huygens Fresnel principle says, as the figure in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Huygens–Fresnel_principle shows, spherical wave are generated from sources. If light speed had anisotropy, we would need not spherical but distorted shape generated waves to explain light diffraction phenomena.
 
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andrew s 1905 said:
I see it would rest on other assumptions of isotropy but, it does seem to escape the issue of Einstein's clock synchronization protocol by using a single clock.
There are many tests of the isotropy of the speed of light that do not depend on clock synchronization. The Michelson Morely experiment being the most famous.

Are you perhaps specifically talking about the isotropy of the one-way speed of light?
 
Dale said:
There are many tests of the isotropy of the speed of light that do not depend on clock synchronization. The Michelson Morely experiment being the most famous.

Are you perhaps specifically talking about the isotropy of the one-way speed of light?

Sorry my apologies, I was not sufficiently clear. Yes, the one way isotropy of the one way speed of light.

The spectroscope may be thought of as a simple transmission scope in which the light travels along the +ve x-axis apart from small deviations perpendicular to the x-axis due to diffraction. The whole apparatus is then rotated say 180 deg so the light now travels in the -ve x direction. The claim is that if the patterns match then the one way speed of light is isotropic along that axis. Obviously it could be rotated to arbitrary orientations to extend the proof.

My question is is this theoretically sound?

My assumption is it relies on the light frequency being isotropic.

Regards Andrew
 
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andrew s 1905 said:
My question is is this theoretically sound?
No, there is 100% unavoidably without reference to any experiment unambiguously without exception no possible way to measure the one-way speed of light without assuming a synchronization convention. It is not a matter of clever experimentation, it is a matter of definition. The one-way speed of light is DEFINED as the distance between a source and a detector divided by the difference in time between two synchronized clocks at the source and the detector. Regardless of HOW you are measuring it that is WHAT you are measuring if you are in fact measuring what is known as the one-way speed of light. There is no way to avoid the issue. It is intrinsic to the definition of the thing that is being measured.
 
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Dale said:
No, there is 100% unavoidably without reference to any experiment unambiguously without exception no possible way to measure the one-way speed of light without assuming a synchronization convention. It is not a matter of clever experimentation, it is a matter of definition. The one-way speed of light is DEFINED as the distance between a source and a detector divided by the difference in time between two synchronized clocks at the source and the detector. Regardless of HOW you are measuring it that is WHAT you are measuring if you are in fact measuring what is known as the one-way speed of light. There is no way to avoid the issue. It is intrinsic to the definition of the thing that is being measured.

I am not arguing with your statement, I agree with it, but I am asking a different question (at least I think I am). The proposed arrangement does not attempt to measure the speed of light it seeks to show equivalence of the one way speed in two different directions.

It seek to show it is the same in both directions irrespective of it's particular value this seems to me to be a different issue to measuring its speed.

As examples one can show two objects have the same mass with a balance beam without knowing the actual mass involved or that two objects, initially practically coincident, have the same velocity if they do not diverge. As far as I can tell neither example rests on the definitions of how the kilogram, meter and second are defined.

Regards Andrew
 
Have you carefully worked it out in detail? Draw up the two scenarios: incident beam comes in normal to grating and produces both a +1 and -1 diffraction max. The angular location of each will be the same even if the +x speed differs from the -x speed. This will be true because the overall diagonal speed of the diffracted beams +/-1 will also differ. This is a generic result as @Dale says

Check
 
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hutchphd said:
Have you carefully worked it out in detail? Draw up the two scenarios: incident beam comes in normal to grating and produces both a +1 and -1 diffraction max. The angular location of each will be the same even if the +x speed differs from the -x speed. This will be true because the overall diagonal speed of the diffracted beams +/-1 will also differ. This is a generic result as @Dale says

Check

Thank you, this was the type of hint I was looking for. Regards Andrew
 
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  • #10
andrew s 1905 said:
I have reviewed the discussions here

Indeed. And you did not find the argument that you have one more unknown than you have equations convincing? Why not?
 
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  • #11
Vanadium 50 said:
Indeed. And you did not find the argument that you have one more unknown than you have equations convincing? Why not?
Thank you. I did not appreciate that. I was trying to find a weakness in a proposal put to me and had failed to do so hence the post. I assume you must be both infallible and psychic as I don't recall posting any equations.

I am not sure why some "staff" on PF feel the need to post such passive aggressive comments. Fortunately, @hutchphd was more considerate in his posting and actually posted something helpful.
 
  • #12
I am glad that my suggestion helped you see what you needed to see. But I think @Vanadium 50 question is a valid one, and not intended as an attack. That explanation is equally good and you need to be able to see all angles.
 
  • #13
andrew s 1905 said:
I assume you must be both infallible and psychic as I don't recall posting any equations.

Do you really want to go down that path? It sounds a lot more like a crackpot posting his own cranky ideas than someone genuinely looking for help. Is that how you want to sound? Especially when someone tries to help you understand by asking what part of the argument you didn't find convincing.

If you have the speed of like equaling something, you have an equation. Whether you write it down or not. (And it would be wise to write these ideas in the form of an equation, as you did with c = λf. ) And the argument given in the other thread is both general and sound: no matter how many measurements you add, you are always one short.
 
  • #14
I am not a crackpot (I have a PhD in Physics albeit some years ago now) and I was genuinely trying to understand a proposal put to me. As I tried to point out I was not trying to measure the one way speed of light which is why the points in the other thread were not directly relevant. I also acknowledged and I agreed you could not do so.

I tried to show by example that two thing can be shown to be the same was different from measuring them and was wondering if that may have made a difference in this case. You did not comment on acknowledged this.
I can check if you and I are the same height or different by standing us next to each other and looking for a difference. No clocks or measuring sticks no equations.

That is why I asked the question and not because of some crackpot idea.

If I miss read the tone of your post I apologise but you seemed to be scalding me for not recognising what to you was obvious. "Indeed" has a certain meaning when used in that way in the UK.

Regards Andrew
 
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  • #15
andrew s 1905 said:
As I tried to point out I was not trying to measure the one way speed of light which is why the points in the other thread were not directly relevant.
The problem with this line of thinking is that if I can measure the average round-trip speed (which I can) then an anisotropy measure would immediately give me a one-way speed measure, since I would have two equations in two unknowns. So a measure of anisotropy is just as impossible as a measure of one-way speed.
 
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  • #16
andrew s 1905 said:
but I am asking a different question (at least I think I am). The proposed arrangement does not attempt to measure the speed of light it seeks to show equivalence of the one way speed in two different directions
It is not a relevant distinction for the key issue. The isotropy of the one way speed of light still requires one way speeds and one way speeds are still defined based on a simultaneity convention. You cannot make that go away from any discussion of the one way speed of light since it is part of the definition of the concept itself.

andrew s 1905 said:
As examples one can show two objects have the same mass with a balance beam without knowing the actual mass involved or that two objects, initially practically coincident, have the same velocity if they do not diverge. As far as I can tell neither example rests on the definitions of how the kilogram, meter and second are defined.
No, but they do rest on how mass, length, and time are defined. For example, mass is a property of a physical system. So you cannot use a balance beam to compare the masses of non-physical things like trust and love. The physical system is part of the definition of mass and there is no way to avoid it regardless of if you are looking to measure mass or detect differences in mass.
 
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  • #18
Ibix said:
The problem with this line of thinking is that if I can measure the average round-trip speed (which I can) then an anisotropy measure would immediately give me a one-way speed measure,
To be precise, there would only be one simultaneity convention consistent with both the outbound and inbound measurements in a round trip. The difficulty here is, as @hutchphd shows in #8, proving isotropy without inadvertently including it in your initial assumptions.
 
  • #19
andrew s 1905 said:
Yes, the one way isotropy of the one way speed of light.
andrew s 1905 said:
t I was not trying to measure the one way speed of light

Those are the same things. If you say "The speed of light in direction x is 10% faster than the two-way speed" you have measured the one-way speed of light.

If you have a PhD in physics, you can surely use equations. If you write down an expression for the one way speed of light, or any equivalent, you will see right away that it doesn't work out (or you have a hidden synchronization convention).
 
  • #20
@Vanadium 50 I have repeatedly said I agree you can't measure the one way seep of light.

I was challenged to show that by the use of the diffraction experiment I described above that you could not show that the one way speeds were the same. This method did not attempt to measure the speed of light directly but used a null method based of the laws of diffraction. I was reluctant to describe it as I might be accused of expressing a personal theory. However, I will do so now.

The grating equation is
1614165002628.png
(Born & Wolf "Principles of Optics" 6th Edition page 403)
So for the transmission grating used with normal incidence the diffraction angle only depends on the order m grating spacing d and wavelength λ . In the experiment the the diffraction angle is found to be the same irrespective of the direction the light path takes along any given axis in an inertial frame. (He has done this with his simple spectroscope to about 1 in 10^-4 in testing its stability.)

If you use the equation c = λf. then it shows that c/f is constant. So if you assume that f is isotropic then so is c.

I have pointed this out to my challenger that his conclusion rest on the isotropy of the lights frequency but was trying to gain further insight on this.

@Dale , has contended that measuring the ratio of the speeds (or c/f) in this example is illegitimate as it would allow me to deduce the one way seep, but I am still struggling with this. To elaborate:

If I have two trains traveling on a parallel tracks passing an observer "A" simultaneously and then some time later pass an observer "B" simultaneously I would conclude they had the same velocity but I would not know what it was. So I believe I can compare two velocities to show they are the same without measuring them.

If that is acceptable, then I don't see how if "A" simultaneously emits two light pulses which are simultaneously detected by "B" I can't conclude they have the same velocity (same one way speed), not what it was but just that they were the same.

Repeating it can't be done is not helping me and I would prefer if someone could point out the logical error I am making in my elaboration or elsewhere in the above.

My aim is to convince my challenger his experiment can't show the seed of light is isotropic not justify it!

Regards Andrew
 
  • #21
andrew s 1905 said:
has contended that measuring the ratio of the speeds (or c/f) in this example is illegitimate
That is not what I said at all. I said that the one way speed of light includes a simultaneity convention in its definition. So by using the concept of a one way speed you are inherently, unavoidably, and intrinsically using a simultaneity convention.

andrew s 1905 said:
My aim is to convince my challenger
We do not conduct debates by proxy. Our aim is to educate members.

andrew s 1905 said:
Repeating it can't be done is not helping me and I would prefer if someone could point out the logical error I am making in my elaboration or elsewhere in the above.
That is not what is happening here. You have been told exactly what the logical error is two different ways: the definition of a one way speed includes a simultaneity convention and if you actually write the equations (with the simultaneity convention as an unknown) you get more unknowns than equations.
 
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  • #22
@Dale I apologies for wasting your time and miss-quoting you but I expressed the conclusion I drew from what you had said. I was genuinely trying to educate myself on this.

I will not trouble any of you further.

Regards Andrew
 
  • #23
Dale said:
No, there is 100% unavoidably without reference to any experiment unambiguously without exception no possible way to measure the one-way speed of light without assuming a synchronization convention. It is not a matter of clever experimentation, it is a matter of definition. The one-way speed of light is DEFINED as the distance between a source and a detector divided by the difference in time between two synchronized clocks at the source and the detector. Regardless of HOW you are measuring it that is WHAT you are measuring if you are in fact measuring what is known as the one-way speed of light. There is no way to avoid the issue. It is intrinsic to the definition of the thing that is being measured.
How does that apply to Bradley's measure of the speed of light by stellar aberration?
 
  • #24
meekerdb said:
How does that apply to Bradley's measure of the speed of light by stellar aberration?
He assumes the Einstein synchronisation convention. If you assume anything else you get a different value for how far the Earth moved "while the light was in the telescope tube" (because your clock synchronisation is different you have a different definition of when the light entered) and hence a different speed of light.
 
  • #25
Why isn't it the assumption that the length of the tube is constant over the small change in angle.
 
  • #26
meekerdb said:
Why isn't it the assumption that the length of the tube is constant over the small change in angle.
I'm not sure what you mean.

Do be aware that a non-isotropic speed of light implies a non-orthogonal coordinate system on spacetime, with all the nasty cross-talk between your notions of space and time that is entailed in that. You can't interpret the measured angle the same way with a non-isotropic speed as you can with an isotropic speed.
 
  • #27
meekerdb said:
How does that apply to Bradley's measure of the speed of light by stellar aberration?
None of the details of any experiment matter
 
  • #28
Dale said:
None of the details of any experiment matter
1614485852370.png

All that Bradley had to measure was the speed of the Earth and the angle alpha.
 
  • #29
meekerdb said:
All that Bradley had to measure was the speed of the Earth and the angle alpha.
And as I said that doesn’t matter. It cannot be used to measure the one way speed of light without assuming a simultaneity convention. (Think about how ##\alpha## is determined and what assumptions are needed)
 
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  • #30
Then you'll pardon me if I don't take your word for it.
 
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  • #31
meekerdb said:
Then you'll pardon me if I don't take your word for it.
Instead of asking me to pardon you or instead of taking my word for it, why don’t YOU work it out. Just apply Reichenbach’s simultaneity convention and work out the prediction mathematically for varying speed of light anisotropies.
 
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  • #32
meekerdb said:
All that Bradley had to measure was the speed of the Earth

There is no such thing as "the speed of the Earth" in any absolute sense. Speed is relative. The "speed" Bradley measured was the speed of the Earth in a particular reference frame. And that particular reference frame also has a particular simultaneity convention. So Bradley's measurement depended on a particular simultaneity convention, one in which the speed of light is defined to be isotropic.
 
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  • #33
meekerdb said:
All that Bradley had to measure was the speed of the Earth and the angle alpha.
Bradley's ##\tan \alpha## is a ratio between certain distances in the rest frame of the sun. For concluding, that this ratio is equal to the ratio between certain one-way-velocities, you need a simlutaneity convention.
 
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  • #34
The fundamental issue with Bradley’s derivation was that he assumed light was a particle following Galilean relativity, the aberration being the same as raindrops observed in different frames. His derivation required that therefore the speed of light was frame dependent, not invariant. It remained an unexplained mystery why light always moved at nearly the same speed. (which led to many concerns about his derivation after source motion light speed independence was established by numerous astronomical observations; the complication of optical extinction would be irrelevant, since if that were taken into account in Galilean relativity there would be no aberration).

In other words, Bradley derived the speed of light in one frame, for one source, if and only if, it was sensitive to both source and target motion, as bullets are.

Einstein’s derivation of aberration was the first one ever consistent with the then well established effective source motion independence light speed. This was actually unique in Einstein’s first SR paper - none of the prior work by others (Lorentz, Poincare, Fitzgerald, etc.) treated the question and significance of aberration. Einstein’s derivation showed that within SR, aberration is not a measure of speed at all, but only a measure of how null directions transform between frames. This, in contrast to Bradley, which measures a speed, if and only if it is affected by both source and target motion.
 
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  • #35
Sagittarius A-Star said:
Bradley's ##\tan \alpha## is a ratio between certain distances in the rest frame of the sun. For concluding, that this ratio is equal to the ratio between certain one-way-velocities, you need a simlutaneity convention.
Bradley’s derivation was based on Galilean relativity, for which simultaneity is absolute. Its real issue for light speed determination is described in my prior post.
 
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  • #36
PAllen said:
Bradley’s derivation was based on Galilean relativity, for which simultaneity is absolute. Its real issue for light speed determination is described in my prior post.
Yes, I tried to explain Bradley’s discovery with relativity, ignoring his theoretical assumptions. I should have mentioned that and also, that then Bradley's ## \tan \alpha ## must be replaced by ## \sin \alpha ##.
 
  • #37
PAllen said:
Einstein’s derivation showed that within SR, aberration is not a measure of speed at all, but only a measure of how null directions transform between frames.
Regarding stellar aberration measurements, you have a frame transformation between two observer frames, not between the source frame and the oberserver frame. Astronomers cannot measure the "real" angle of the star location. They look through their telescope at a star and look several months later under a changed angle at the same star. So they measure the ange difference(s) of two or more observations. The "active" aberration due to movement of the star in the sun's frame cannot be measured this way.
 
  • #38
Sagittarius A-Star said:
Regarding stellar aberration measurements, you have a frame transformation between two observer frames, not between the source frame and the oberserver frame. Astronomers cannot measure the "real" angle of the star location. They look through their telescope at a star and look several months later under a changed angle at the same star. So they measure the ange difference(s) of two or more observations. The "active" aberration due to movement of the star in the sun's frame cannot be measured this way.
Yes, I know that. I simply didn't specify that the two frames involved were 'observer' frames rather than e.g. source/target frames.
 
  • #39
I have never understood discussions about the isotropy of the speed of light. It is assumed we are dealing with an inertial frame. In inertial frames the laws of physics are the same in every direction, by the very definition of an inertial frame (see Landau - Mechanics if you have never seen this definition before and it's consequences). Maxwell's equations, that govern the speed of light, are a law of nature so it must be the same in any direction. This one always has had me beat even though there are textbooks like Ohanian's on Gravitation that raise it as a serious issue. Maybe I am missing something. Now do inertial frames actually exist - that is a more interesting issue. Certainly they conceptually do.

Thanks
Bill
 
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  • #40
That's true, but the isotropy of space for initial observers indeed is just an assumption about the spacetime model and as any assumption it's subject to experimental tests to verify or falsify its validity. So far there's no hint at a contradiction between the assumption and the experimental tests, and that's why GR is still considered to be the most comprehensive space-time model we have.
 
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  • #41
vanhees71 said:
That's true, but the isotropy of space for initial observers indeed is just an assumption about the spacetime model and as any assumption it's subject to experimental tests to verify or falsify its validity.
Well, not all assumptions are totally subject to empirical test, for instance assumptions that are conventions in a certain mathematical framework aren't. The last of the universal mathematicians, Poincaré, wrote a lot about this in relation with geometric models of spacetime. His was the first account of mathematical conventionalism and it was used profusely in Einstein's first article to construct SR based in postulates/definitions without any possibility of mathematical contradiction since they rely on conventions inherent to geometry(flat constant curvature for SR or with variable curvature for GR).
 
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  • #42
You can build a lot of sound and solid mathematical models of space-time. If you claim them to describe physical space and time the only way the physicist can figure out whether you have a good model is to empirically test it.
 
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  • #43
vanhees71 said:
You can build a lot of sound and solid mathematical models of space-time. If you claim them to describe physical space and time the only way the physicist can figure out whether you have a good model is to empirically test it.
You mentioned assumptions in your previous post and I merely mentioned that certain assumptions in the physical model are conventions related to geometry or to the mathematical tools used to do the modeling, so they are outside the empirical scope(of course for the new model if it incorporates the limit of the previous already empirically valid theory like it's the case with relativity that validity, to that accuracy, is of course kept).
For instance, how do you test the one-way speed of light without a simultaneity convention that incorporates the (affine) geometry of your spacetime and light's constant velocity postulate?
 
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  • #44
bhobba said:
In inertial frames the laws of physics are the same in every direction, by the very definition of an inertial frame

Fine, but then this becomes the question "are inertial frames realized in nature"?
 
  • #45
Tendex said:
Well, not all assumptions are totally subject to empirical test

If a frame is inertial or not is one that is subject to experimental testing. It is not a convention. For simplicity we often consider a frame we know is not inertial as inertial. I think a reading or refresher of what Feynman says in the first few chapters of his Lectures on Physics would help. For many experiments and solving problems we consider a table that a spirit level shows is flat, as actually being flat in the Euclidean sense. But, as Feynman points out, when looked at closely the boundary between table and air is nebulous. It consists of molecules of the table vaporising off, and atoms/molecules of air filling the gaps. Theoretically, when we analyse problems we make simplifying assumptions to solve it. That is part of what we, as humans, do. I know the arguments against measuring the one way speed of light, it being just a convention etc eg:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/One-way_speed_of_light.

They all run up against the other evidence we have of the Earth being, to a high degree of accuracy, inertial.

Thanks
Bill
 
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  • #46
Vanadium 50 said:
Fine, but then this becomes the question "are inertial frames realized in nature"?

We know the answer to that - no. But yes to a high degree of accuracy. Do you doubt Euclidean Geometry because a point has position, but no size and such do not exist? Euclidean geometry can be doubted, and is indeed from GR is not true (except locally) - but that a point is an abstraction is not the reason it is doubted. An inertial frame is the same - as a conceptualisation very useful - but it's reality is up for grabs. Physical theories are models based on conceptualisations. Inertial frames are a very important part of many physical models including relativity.

We often make simplifying assumptions. However - point taken.

Thanks
Bill
 
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  • #47
Let's take it one step back. (And pretend it's before the latest unit redefinition which makes things more complicated.) The question "is the speed of light isotropic" is the same as "is the permittivity of free space the same in all directions". That is a well-defined experimental question. The answer "it must be because of the definition of an inertial frame" is something I find unsatisfying. We have to look. And if we know that it's good to ε (no pun intended) we would like to make ε as small as possible.
 
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  • #48
Vanadium 50 said:
Let's take it one step back. (And pretend it's before the latest unit redefinition which makes things more complicated.) The question "is the speed of light isotropic" is the same as "is the permittivity of free space the same in all directions". That is a well-defined experimental question. The answer "it must be because of the definition of an inertial frame" is something I find unsatisfying. We have to look. And if we know that it's good to ε (no pun intended) we would like to make ε as small as possible.

Yes. Everything in science is open to doubt, or as you say, without experimental confirmation, deeply unsatisfying. Indeed such would be an interesting question. I think I was jumping the gun somewhat in saying I have never understood the discussion about the one way speed of light. What I really mean is we normally assume inertial frames. The issue then is, as you pointed out, just how good an assumption is it really.

Thanks
Bill
 
  • #49
Tendex said:
You mentioned assumptions in your previous post and I merely mentioned that certain assumptions in the physical model are conventions related to geometry or to the mathematical tools used to do the modeling, so they are outside the empirical scope(of course for the new model if it incorporates the limit of the previous already empirically valid theory like it's the case with relativity that validity, to that accuracy, is of course kept).
For instance, how do you test the one-way speed of light without a simultaneity convention that incorporates the (affine) geometry of your spacetime and light's constant velocity postulate?
No, they are not outside the empirical scope. If you assume isotropy of space for (locally) inertial observers you can test this empirically. In principle nothing prevents you from finding a dependence of the speed of light on the orientation of your measurement device, and then this specific symmetry assumption would be disproven. Of course, today no such violation is known.

It's like the question of parity symmetry. Before the mid 1950ies everybody thought that "of course" nature is symmetric under spatial reflections, and famously Pauli thought Wu's experiment is superfluous, and he was clearly proven wrong by this and other experiments concerning the weak interaction. Finally it turned out that the weak interaction violates parity in a sense maximally (pure "V minus A coupling").
 
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  • #50
Vanadium 50 said:
Let's take it one step back. (And pretend it's before the latest unit redefinition which makes things more complicated.) The question "is the speed of light isotropic" is the same as "is the permittivity of free space the same in all directions". That is a well-defined experimental question. The answer "it must be because of the definition of an inertial frame" is something I find unsatisfying. We have to look. And if we know that it's good to ε (no pun intended) we would like to make ε as small as possible.
Exactly, and that's why indeed isotropy is subject to experimental tests. Of course, it's true, you need a space-time model to measure time intervals and lengths. From the space-time model also the physical laws are constraint to some extent due to the symmetries implied by the assumed space-time model, and within this constraints you can build mathematical models to describe/predict real-world phenomena. Then you make observations and measurements in the real world using the underlying model to define quantitative measures for these observables. Nothing a priori ensures that everything turns out as predicted by the models, and you can check these (symmetry) assumptions by probing all kinds of consequences derived from them by building physical models.

Concerning the assumption of the existence inertial reference frames it's also clear that this is also subject to experimental test (and, sorry, @Dale , when discussing this issue about experimental tests of space-time models I must use the "clocks-and-ruler definition" of a reference frame).

Of course, Newton simply assumed an absolute space and an absolute time (it's not even really a "space-time", because of the fiber-bundel structure of the Newtonian space-time model) and that was it for him. Nevertheless his view was already criticized, among other famously by his arch enemy Leibniz, who logically argued that motion cannot be absolute within Newton's own theoretical edifice, because all inertial frames are equivalent, and it's indeed necessary to define an inertial reference frame by realizing it by some reference point and three directions (realizable by rigid rods, which within Newton's physics of course exist) as well as a clock, which can be defined by a reference body assumed to move with constant velocity wrt. the (hopefully inertial) reference frame.

A naive starting point of course is, as done in any physics freshman lecture on day 1 (usually not expclitly ;-)), to just use your lab fixed at rest in Earth as an inertial reference frame, taking the ever present gravitational force of the Earth on all bodies into account as a homogeneous fource ##m \vec{g}##. As we all know, with this assumption you get very far.

It's of course clear that the Earth-fixed lab frame is for sure not an inertial reference frame. You may rather take the fixed stars as reference bodies defining an inertial frame, and then you expect that indeed the earth-fixed frame is even a rotating frame, both from the motion of the Earth around the Sun and its spin around its axis once per day. Then you develop the theory what to expect when using a non-inertial rotating reference frame and predict that the Foucault pendulum can be used to demonstrate the rotation of the Earth (wrt. the fixed-star reference frame), and as is well-known this indeed turns out to be right.

Then in the mid 19th century Maxwell developed his non-Galilei invariant electrodynamics, and many (if not all?) physicists thought that this finally fixes the reference frame for Newton's absolute space (and time). It was also theorized (including Maxwell himself) that Maxwell's electromagnetic waves are due to the vibrations of the aether, whose (global) rest frame defines Newton's absolute space. The history is known: From this it should be possible to empirically prove the existence of this absolute space and this preferred inertial aether rest frame. Then the null result of the Michelson Morley experiment, which was the first experiment being sensitive to order ##\mathcal{O}[(v/c)^2]##, showed that this idea is not correct and, even more famously, Einstein turned the argument around in 1905 and introduced a new space-time model (2 years later analyzed by Minkowski in its mathematical/geometrical structure and thus henceforth called "Minkowski space-time") valid for all of physics.

The up to now last step then was the development of GR by Einstein in his attempt to find a relativistic theory for the gravitational interaction, leading to a dynamical space-time picture. Here the important property is the equivalence of "inertial and gravitational mass", which finally in the mathematics boils down to the assumption that at any space-time point one can define a locally inertial reference frame. The extent of this local reference frame is determined by the homogeneity of the gravitational field as can be measured with test particles, and then the local inertial reference frames are defined in the neighborhood of the space-time point in question by a freely falling pointlike test body, which is then moving along a timelike geodesic of the curved Lorentzian spacetime, defining a time-like unit tangent vector (the four-velocity of the body) which then enables the construction for three space-like non-rotating unit vectors building together with the four-velocity of the body a free-falling non-rotating tetrad, defining a local inertial reference frame. It's of course only inertial to the extent defined by how accurately the gravitational field the test body is freely falling in can be regarded as homogeneous and to this accuracy the gravitational force can be regarded as equivalent to the inertial forces in a non-inertial reference frame being accerated relative to the free-falling tetrad just constructed to define the local inertial reference frame. Of course a "true gravitational field" can never be completely explained as equivalent to the inertial forces in a non-inertial local reference frame but there are always deviations from an exactly homogeneous gravitational field, leading to tidal forces measurable also in the local inertial reference frame.
 
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