Just couldnt figure this out =

  • Thread starter toni
  • Start date
  • #1
19
0
why the equivalence??????

there must be some formula for this...just i donno.
i really need some hints!!! thank you guys!
 

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Answers and Replies

  • #2
gabbagabbahey
Homework Helper
Gold Member
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The derivative operator [itex]\frac{\partial^j}{\partial x^j}[/itex] is acting only on x...the j=0 derivative is just the zeroith order derivative of x, which is x. The j=1 derivative is [itex]\frac{\partial}{\partial x}x=1[/itex]. Since this is a constant, all higher order derivatives are zero and so all the j>1 terms in each of the sums is zero. You are left with only the j=0 and j=1 terms which you can write out explicitly to obtain the expression on the right.
 
  • #3
19
0
THANK YOU SOOOOOOOOOOO MUCH!

Now i understand why it goes like that!!!
 

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