K-th convergents of continued fraction

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of the k-th convergents of continued fractions, specifically focusing on establishing a lower bound for the denominators of these convergents. Participants explore methods to prove that the denominator \( q_k \) satisfies the inequality \( q_k \geq 2^{\frac{k-1}{2}} \) for \( 1 \leq k \leq n \). The conversation includes mathematical reasoning and potential proofs, including induction.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Technical explanation
  • Exploratory

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants suggest using recursive relations for the numerators and denominators of convergents as a basis for the proof.
  • There is a proposal to use induction, with discussions about the base case and the induction hypothesis.
  • Concerns are raised about the values of \( a_i \) for \( i > 0 \) and whether they are always greater than or equal to 1.
  • Participants question the validity of the induction hypothesis and whether it should include \( j = 0 \).
  • A participant references a theorem from a book on continued fractions, indicating that the proof involves inequalities derived from earlier theorems.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no consensus on the proof method or the assumptions regarding the values of \( a_i \). Participants express uncertainty about the induction hypothesis and the implications of the recursive relations.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the values of \( a_i \) must be positive integers for \( i > 0 \), but the implications of this requirement on the proof are not fully resolved. There are also discussions about the specific inequalities that need to be established during the induction process.

evinda
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Hello! (Wave)

I want to show that if $c_k=\frac{p_k}{q_k}$ the $k$-th convergents of the continued fraction $[a_0; a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n]$, then $q_k \geq 2^{\frac{k-1}{2}} (1 \leq k \leq n)$.

Could you give me a hint how we could show this? (Thinking)
 
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evinda said:
Hello! (Wave)

I want to show that if $c_k=\frac{p_k}{q_k}$ the $k$-th convergents of the continued fraction $[a_0; a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n]$, then $q_k \geq 2^{\frac{k-1}{2}} (1 \leq k \leq n)$.

Could you give me a hint how we could show this? (Thinking)

Hey evinda! (Smile)

Wiki says:
For a continued fraction $[a_0;a_1,a_2,a_3,...]$, the first four convergents (numbered 0 through 3) are
$$\frac{a_0}{1}, \frac{a_1 a_0 + 1}{a_1}, ...$$

If successive convergents are found, with numerators $h_1, h_2, …$ and denominators $k_1, k_2, …$ then the relevant recursive relation is:
$$h_n = a_nh_{n − 1} + h_{n − 2},\\
k_n = a_nk_{n − 1} + k_{n − 2}.$$


Can we use that?
If so, can we prove it by induction? (Wondering)
 
Klaas van Aarsen said:
Hey evinda! (Smile)

Wiki says:
For a continued fraction $[a_0;a_1,a_2,a_3,...]$, the first four convergents (numbered 0 through 3) are
$$\frac{a_0}{1}, \frac{a_1 a_0 + 1}{a_1}, ...$$

If successive convergents are found, with numerators $h_1, h_2, …$ and denominators $k_1, k_2, …$ then the relevant recursive relation is:
$$h_n = a_nh_{n − 1} + h_{n − 2},\\
k_n = a_nk_{n − 1} + k_{n − 2}.$$


Can we use that?
If so, can we prove it by induction? (Wondering)


If we use this, then at the base case, do we pick $n=2$ ?

If so, then we have $k_2=a_2 k_1+k_0$.

But can we get somehow an inequality for the latter? (Thinking)
 
evinda said:
If we use this, then at the base case, do we pick $n=2$ ?

If so, then we have $k_2=a_2 k_1+k_0$.

In the base case we should calculate $k_0$, and $k_1$.
Then in the induction hypothesis we assume it is true up to $n\ge 1$.
And in the induction step we have to prove it for $n+1$ for which we can now use that formula. (Thinking)

evinda said:
But can we get somehow an inequality for the latter?

We have that $a_i \ge 1$ for $i>0$ don't we? (Wondering)
 
Klaas van Aarsen said:
In the base case we should calculate $k_0$, and $k_1$.
Then in the induction hypothesis we assume it is true up to $n\ge 1$.
And in the induction step we have to prove it for $n+1$ for which we can now use that formula. (Thinking)

We have that $a_i \ge 1$ for $i>0$ don't we? (Wondering)[

We have that $k_0=1 \geq 2^{-\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$ and $k_1=a_1$.

Why does it hold that $a_i \ge 1$ for $i>0$?At the induction hypothesis we assume that $k_j \geq 2^{\frac{j-1}{2}}, \forall 1 \leq j \leq n$, or not?

Then, $k_{n+1}=a_n k_n+k_{n-1} \geq 1 \cdot 2^{\frac{n-1}{2}}+2^{\frac{n-2}{2}}=2^{\frac{n-2}{2}} (\sqrt{2}+1) \geq 1$. Right? (Thinking)
 
evinda said:
We have that $k_0=1 \geq 2^{-\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$ and $k_1=a_1$.

Why does it hold that $a_i \ge 1$ for $i>0$?

Because:
  • It says so in wiki:
    In either case, all integers in the sequence, other than the first, must be positive.

    [*]If $a_n$ would be $0$, we'd be dividing by $0$.
    [*]If we pick $a_2=0$, we get $q_2=0\cdot a_1 + 1=1 \not\ge 2^{\frac{2-1}{2}}=\sqrt 2$. (Worried)

evinda said:
At the induction hypothesis we assume that $k_j \geq 2^{\frac{j-1}{2}}, \forall 1 \leq j \leq n$, or not?

Shouldn't that be $\forall 0 \leq j \leq n$ ? (Wondering)

evinda said:
Then, $k_{n+1}=a_n k_n+k_{n-1} \geq 1 \cdot 2^{\frac{n-1}{2}}+2^{\frac{n-2}{2}}=2^{\frac{n-2}{2}} (\sqrt{2}+1) \geq 1$. Right?

Don't we need to prove that $k_{n+1} \ge 2^{\frac n 2}$ ? (Thinking)
 
This is Theorem 12 in "Continued Fractions" by A. Ya. Khinchin (Dover publications). The proof uses repeated application of an inequality derived from Theorem 1 of the same book. If I can figure out how to use the Latex code I will post them.
 

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