Limsup(a+b) = limsup(a) + limsup(b)

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Mr Davis 97
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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the relationship between the limit superior (limsup) of the sum of two bounded sequences and the individual limit superiors of those sequences. Participants explore whether the equality ##\limsup(a+b) = \limsup(a) + \limsup(b)## holds under certain conditions, particularly focusing on the implications of one sequence being convergent.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation, Debate/contested, Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that if ##\limsup_{n\to\infty} (a_n+b_n) \le \limsup_{n\to\infty}a_n + \limsup_{n\to\infty}b_n##, then it follows that ##\limsup_{n\to\infty} b_n + \limsup_{n\to\infty} a_n \le \limsup_{n\to\infty} (a_n+b_n)##, suggesting a potential equality under certain conditions.
  • Another participant challenges the argument by stating that ##\limsup_{n \to \infty} (-a_n) \neq - \limsup_{n \to \infty} a_n##, using the sequence ##a_n = (-1)^n## as a counterexample.
  • A later reply acknowledges the previous point and notes that if ##a_n## converges, then the relationship ##\limsup_{n \to \infty} (-a_n) = - \limsup_{n \to \infty} a_n## holds true.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the general validity of the equality ##\limsup(a+b) = \limsup(a) + \limsup(b)##, with some suggesting that convergence of one sequence is necessary for the equality to hold. There is no consensus on the conditions under which the equality may be true.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the importance of convergence in the discussion of limsup properties, indicating that the argument may depend on specific characteristics of the sequences involved.

Mr Davis 97
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Let ##\{a_n\}## and ##\{b_n\}## be bounded sequences. Say that we already know that ##\displaystyle \limsup_{n\to\infty} (a_n+b_n) \le \limsup_{n\to\infty}a_n + \limsup_{n\to\infty}b_n##.

But isn't it also true then that $$\limsup_{n\to\infty} b_n = \limsup_{n\to\infty} ((a_n+b_n) +(- a_n)) \le \limsup_{n\to\infty} (a_n+b_n) + \limsup_{n\to\infty} (-a_n) = \limsup_{n\to\infty} (a_n+b_n) - \limsup_{n\to\infty} a_n,$$ and so ##\limsup_{n\to\infty} b_n + \limsup_{n\to\infty} a_n \le \limsup_{n\to\infty} (a_n+b_n)##. So we conclude that ##\displaystyle \limsup_{n\to\infty} (a_n+b_n) = \limsup_{n\to\infty}a_n + \limsup_{n\to\infty}b_n##. Is something going wrong with this argument? I think in general you need one of the sequences to be convergent for this to be true.
 
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##\limsup_{n \to \infty} (-a_n) \neq - \limsup_{n \to \infty} a_n##

Take ##a_n = (-1)^n##.
 
Math_QED said:
##\limsup_{n \to \infty} (-a_n) \neq - \limsup_{n \to \infty} a_n##

Take ##a_n = (-1)^n##.
Ah, I see. But if ##a_n## converges then ##\limsup_{n \to \infty} (-a_n) = - \limsup_{n \to \infty} a_n##.
 
Mr Davis 97 said:
Ah, I see. But if ##a_n## converges then ##\limsup_{n \to \infty} (-a_n) = - \limsup_{n \to \infty} a_n##.

Correct.
 

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