- #1
arivero
Gold Member
- 3,493
- 169
A usual lore from chiral perturbation theory is that the mass of the pion is proportional to the sum of the up and down masses, and then it is going to be zero when such masses are zero.
Now, for the proton, I notice the following remark from Chris Quigg
Why is it different of the pion?
Now, for the proton, I notice the following remark from Chris Quigg
Chiral perturbation theory tells us that in the limit of vanishing quark masses the nucleon mass would decrease to 870 MeV
Why is it different of the pion?