Why Do We Use the Reciprocal in Fraction Division?

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The discussion clarifies that using the reciprocal in fraction division is rooted in the definition of division as the inverse of multiplication. Dividing by a fraction is equivalent to multiplying by its reciprocal. An algebraic proof illustrates this concept, showing that n = (a/b) ÷ (c/d) can be rewritten as n = (a/b) × (d/c). Participants express appreciation for the proof, highlighting its clarity in understanding the concept. The explanation emphasizes the mathematical relationship between division and multiplication in the context of fractions.
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Could someone show me the proof to why we use the reciprocal in fractions division. I ask this because it seem we are taught the how in math but never the why. Algebra proof would be best thanks.
 
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It's not a proof, it's a definition. Division is the inverse operation of multiplication, and so dividing by a fraction is the same as multiplying by the inverse of that fraction, which is its reciprocal.
 
My LaTeX always looks so ugly.

n = \frac{(\frac{a}{b})}{(\frac{c}{d})}
n\left(\frac{c}{d}\right) = \frac{a}{b}
nc = \frac{ad}{b}
n = \frac{ad}{bc} = \left(\frac{a}{b}\right) \times \left(\frac{d}{c}\right)
 
Thanks for the proof abacus, well appreciated makes things clearer for me.
 
Good morning I have been refreshing my memory about Leibniz differentiation of integrals and found some useful videos from digital-university.org on YouTube. Although the audio quality is poor and the speaker proceeds a bit slowly, the explanations and processes are clear. However, it seems that one video in the Leibniz rule series is missing. While the videos are still present on YouTube, the referring website no longer exists but is preserved on the internet archive...

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