MHB Mean and variance of difference operators on a time series process

deba123
Messages
4
Reaction score
0
$$\text{Consider the following decomposition of the time series }{Y}_{t}\text{ where }{Y}_{t}={m}_{t}+{\varepsilon}_{t},\text{ where }{\varepsilon}_{t}\text{ is a sequence of i.i.d }\left(0,{\sigma}^{2}\right)\text{ process. Compute the mean and variance of the process }{\nabla}_{2}{Y}_{t}\text{ when }:{m}_{t}=a+bt.$$
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Welcome to MHB! :D

Can you show what you have tried so far so our helpers have some idea where you are stuck and can then offer better help?
 
MarkFL said:
Welcome to MHB! :D

Can you show what you have tried so far so our helpers have some idea where you are stuck and can then offer better help?

$$O.K\: so\: here's\: what\: i\: did:
{\nabla}_{2}{Y}_{t}=\nabla(\nabla{Y}_{t})=\nabla(({Y}_{t})-({Y}_{t-1}))={Y}_{t}-2{Y}_{t-1}+{Y}_{t-2}.
Which\: after\: expanding\: comes\: out:\:
{\varepsilon}_{t}-2{\varepsilon}_{t-1}+{\varepsilon}_{t-2}.
So\: mean\: is\: 0 \:and\: variance\: is\: 4{\sigma}^{2}.$$
$$But\:the\:answer\: is :mean=2b\:and\: variance=2{\sigma}^{2}.$$ I don't get how the answer came about something like that. Please help.
 
Did the answer detail the computations?
 
girdav said:
Did the answer detail the computations?

No it didn't. But the answer could be wrong. I just want to know where I was wrong (or right) and may be if I was using the wrong definition. Thanks for your help.
 
The term $2b$ for the variance could be explained if we had considered $m_t=a+bt^2$, but I fail to see how the $2\sigma^2$ terms come from.
 
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Thread 'Detail of Diagonalization Lemma'
The following is more or less taken from page 6 of C. Smorynski's "Self-Reference and Modal Logic". (Springer, 1985) (I couldn't get raised brackets to indicate codification (Gödel numbering), so I use a box. The overline is assigning a name. The detail I would like clarification on is in the second step in the last line, where we have an m-overlined, and we substitute the expression for m. Are we saying that the name of a coded term is the same as the coded term? Thanks in advance.
Back
Top