Mean Value Theorem of Electrostatics

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The discussion revolves around deriving the mean value theorem of electrostatics as presented in J.D. Jackson's "Classical Electrodynamics." Participants debate the correct formulation of the average potential over a spherical surface, with various mathematical expressions proposed. There is confusion regarding the notation and dimensions of the integrals involved, leading to clarifications about surface versus line integrals. A link to a potential solution using Green's theorem is shared, although the relevance of the thread is questioned due to its age. Overall, the conversation highlights the importance of precise notation and understanding in mathematical derivations related to electrostatics.
pmb_phy
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In "Classical Electrodynamics - 3rd Ed.," J.D. Jackson has an exercise, 1.10, to derive the mean value theorem of electrostatics. Does anyone know of a derivation which is located on the web?

Pete
 
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Yes, this one

"The average value of the potential over the spherical surface is

\bar{\Phi} =\frac{1}{4\pi R}\int \Phi \ dA

If u imagine the surface of the sphere as discretized, u can rewrite the integral as an infinite sum

\frac{1}{a}\int \ dA =\Sigma_{area}

Then, takin the derivative wrt to R

\frac{d\bar{\Phi}}{dR}=\frac{d}{dR}\Sigma \Phi=\Sigma \frac{d\Phi}{dR}

Convert the infinite sum back to an integral & get

\frac{d\bar{\Phi}}{dR}=\frac{1}{4\pi R^{2}} \int \frac{d\Phi}{dR} \ dA

Now, using that

\frac{d\Phi}{dR}=-E and Gauss's law (no charge inside the sphere) that gives

\frac{d\bar{Phi}}{dR}=0 \Rightarrow \bar{\Phi}_{surface}=\Phi_{center}

Q.E.D.


Daniel.
 
dextercioby said:
"The average value of the potential over the spherical surface is
\bar{\Phi} =\frac{1}{4\pi R}\int \Phi \ dA
No. It isn't. Its
\bar{\Phi} =\frac{1}{A}\int d\Phi
where A is the area of the sphere.

Pete
 
This isn't quite right either.

pmb_phy said:
No. It isn't. Its
\bar{\Phi} =\frac{1}{A}\int d\Phi
where A is the area of the sphere.
Pete

It isn't clear what you mean by \int d\Phi
since usually the integral of an exact differential
is just the function evaluated at the endpoints.

Or alternatively
\int d\Phi = \int \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial x} dx +<br /> \int \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial y} dy +<br /> \int \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial z} dz
which is, of course, a line integral (which isn't what we
want).


dextercobi said:
\bar{\Phi} =\frac{1}{4\pi R}\int \Phi \ dA

This doesn't have the right dimensions. On the left
we have dimensions of [Phi]; and on the right we have
dimensions of [Phi]x[Area]/[Length].

I propose another formula:
<br /> \bar{\Phi} = \frac{1}{4 \pi R^2} \int_A \Phi dA <br />

This also has the advantage that if Phi is constant
on the sphere we have
<br /> \bar{\Phi} = \frac{1}{4 \pi R^2} \int_A \Phi dA = <br /> \frac{1}{4 \pi R^2} \Phi \int_A dA = <br /> \frac{1}{4 \pi R^2} \Phi ( 4 \pi R^2 ) =<br /> \Phi<br />
 
qbert said:
This isn't quite right either.
It isn't clear what you mean by \int d\Phi
since usually the integral of an exact differential
is just the function evaluated at the endpoints.
That would be true if you were talking about a line integral rather than in this case where the integral is a surface integral. What d\Phi is? Hmmm. Perhaps you're right. I can't say that is a small element of \Phi since that makes no sense to me at the moment. Thanks.

Pete
 
qbert said:
I propose another formula:
<br /> \bar{\Phi} = \frac{1}{4 \pi R^2} \int_A \Phi dA <br />
May I propose a more [notationally] precise formula:
<br /> \bar{\Phi} = \frac{1}{A} \int_A \Phi dA <br />
or a more [conceptually] precise formula for this average:
<br /> \bar{\Phi} = \frac{ \int_A \Phi dA } {\int_A dA} <br />
 
Ah, pedantry, thou most noble virtue. You are, of course, correct. Now the next person (who reads this thread) who needs a 2-D average will know the correct generalization.
 
Last edited:
I admit, it was R^2 in the denominator...

Daniel.
 
qbert said:
Ah, pedantry, thou most noble virtue. You are, of course, correct. Now the next person (who reads this thread) who needs a 2-D average will know the correct generalization.
This is a Homework subforum... and, in my experience, my students appreciate seeing the general idea in a consistent memorable notation rather than a special case. After all, there was some confusion with this formula.

Although the notation "A" [implicitly] suggests an area average, it is certainly not necessarily so.
 
  • #10
robphy said:
This is a Homework subforum... and, in my experience, my students appreciate seeing the general idea in a consistent memorable notation rather than a special case. After all, there was some confusion with this formula.
Although the notation "A" [implicitly] suggests an area average, it is certainly not necessarily so.
Hi Rob

Do you know where I can find a solution? Jackson seems to want the student to use Green's theorm to solve this.

Pete
 
  • #11
Hope this link helps

http://faculty.cua.edu/sober/536/meanvalue.pdf
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #12
You do realize that this post is coming onto 4 years old? That the original poster hasn't asked a question for well over a year?

There is usually no reason to resurrect threads that are more than 2 months old, let alone ones that are 4 years old.
 

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