This isn't quite right either.
pmb_phy said:
No. It isn't. Its
\bar{\Phi} =\frac{1}{A}\int d\Phi
where A is the area of the sphere.
Pete
It isn't clear what you mean by \int d\Phi
since usually the integral of an exact differential
is just the function evaluated at the endpoints.
Or alternatively
\int d\Phi = \int \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial x} dx +<br />
\int \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial y} dy +<br />
\int \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial z} dz
which is, of course, a line integral (which isn't what we
want).
dextercobi said:
\bar{\Phi} =\frac{1}{4\pi R}\int \Phi \ dA
This doesn't have the right dimensions. On the left
we have dimensions of [Phi]; and on the right we have
dimensions of [Phi]x[Area]/[Length].
I propose another formula:
<br />
\bar{\Phi} = \frac{1}{4 \pi R^2} \int_A \Phi dA <br />
This also has the advantage that if Phi is constant
on the sphere we have
<br />
\bar{\Phi} = \frac{1}{4 \pi R^2} \int_A \Phi dA = <br />
\frac{1}{4 \pi R^2} \Phi \int_A dA = <br />
\frac{1}{4 \pi R^2} \Phi ( 4 \pi R^2 ) =<br />
\Phi<br />