If I understand correctly, a measurement affects the wave function only at the moment of measurement. In other words, if one were able to compare two wave functions, one when there were measurements, and one in which there were no measurements, the only difference would be at the meager set of measurement points. (I am not starting a debate between MWI, Decoherence, Copenhagen, etc.: for many-world theorists, I am only considering our branch.) Is this correct?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Measurement effect upon wave function

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