Mechanical Energy of Particle in Horizontal Circle

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SUMMARY

A particle of mass "m" revolving in a horizontal circle of radius "r" experiences a centripetal force described by -k/(r*r), where k is a constant. The mechanical energy of the particle can be derived from both the user's approach and the book's solution, leading to the same conclusion. The user's method incorrectly assumes potential energy can be set to zero at the particle's position, while the book correctly identifies that potential energy should be referenced to infinity. The final mechanical energy is expressed as E = -k/(2r), highlighting the importance of proper reference points in potential energy calculations.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of centripetal force and its mathematical representation
  • Familiarity with kinetic and potential energy concepts
  • Knowledge of conservative forces and energy conservation principles
  • Ability to perform integration in the context of physics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of mechanical energy in systems with varying forces
  • Learn about the implications of choosing reference points in potential energy calculations
  • Explore the relationship between kinetic energy and force fields in circular motion
  • Investigate the effects of different force laws, such as 1/r^3, on mechanical energy
USEFUL FOR

Physics students, educators, and anyone interested in understanding mechanical energy in circular motion and the implications of potential energy reference points.

ritwik06
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Homework Statement



A particle of mass "m" is revolving in a horizontal circle of radius "r" under a centripetal force -k/(r*r), where k is a constant. What is the mechanical energy of the particle.

The Attempt at a Solution


There are two solutions to the problem I have got. One is mine, the other was published in my book.
My own approach:
I take the potential energy reference level at the horizontal plane at which the particle is.
Therefore its potential energy is 0
Now by equation for circular motion:
[tex]\frac{mv^{2}}{r}=\frac{-k}{r^{2}}[/tex][tex]mv^{2}=\frac{-k}{r}[/tex]

Kinetic Energy=[tex]0.5*mv^{2}=0.5\frac{-k}{r}[/tex]Now my books solution:
U=-[tex]\int\frac{-k * dr}{r^{2}}=-k/r[/tex]
I know this step is done because magnitude of conservative force acting is negative of the rate of change of potential energy.

[tex]\frac{mv^{2}}{r}=\frac{k}{r^{2}}[/tex]
[tex]K=0.5 mv^{2}=\frac{k}{2r}[/tex]

Now they add these two to get the same result I did. Where is the anomaly? Was my solution incorrect?
 
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Your choice of zero potential energy was arbitrary. Of course, one can set potential equal to zero anywhere he/she pleases, but in a case such as this one, the potential energy is usually the energy at infinity. It's because at infinity the attractive force is zero, so the particles do not interact, therefore, they share no potential energy. As they approach to a distance r, the attraction results in increase of kinetic energy, which is also, by energy conservation, the decrease of potential energy.

Your result has an obvious fault. Look here:

[tex]E = \frac{mv^2}{2} = \frac{-k}{2r}[/tex]

If k is positive and r is positive, the velocity v can't be real! It's just a matter of dimensions that you have the same dependence k/r and pure luck that there's the same factor 0.5. If the force was 1/r^3 or something like that, you wouldn't get the same factor.
 
solved[/color]
Thanks a lot.
 

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