Undergrad Normalisation constant expansion of spinor field

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the normalization constant in the wave packet solution to the Dirac equation, specifically the term \(\frac{1}{2E}\) in the integral \(\int \frac{d^3p}{(2\pi)^3 2E} [a u e^{-ipx} + b^\dagger \bar{v} e^{ipx}]\). The participants clarify that this factor arises from performing a 4-D Fourier transform, where the integration over \(dp_0\) leads to the normalization factor \(\frac{1}{2E}\). This contrasts with expressions involving \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2E}}\), which are associated with 3-D Fourier transforms. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for grasping the normalization in quantum field theory.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Dirac equation and its solutions
  • Familiarity with Fourier transforms in multiple dimensions
  • Knowledge of delta functions and their properties
  • Basic concepts of quantum field theory
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Dirac equation solutions in quantum field theory
  • Learn about the properties and applications of delta functions in physics
  • Explore the differences between 3-D and 4-D Fourier transforms
  • Investigate normalization constants in various quantum field theories
USEFUL FOR

Physicists, particularly those specializing in quantum field theory, students studying advanced quantum mechanics, and researchers interested in the mathematical foundations of particle physics.

Josh1079
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Hi, I'm reading about the wave packet solution to the dirac equation but in the book I'm reading it states that \int \frac {d^3p} {(2\pi)^3 2E} [a u e^{-ipx} + b^\dagger \bar{v} e^{ipx}

The normalisation constant confuses me. I guess the 2pi^3 is reasonalbe. However, the 1/2E seems a bit weird to me. I thought it should always be something of the order of (-1/2) of E. Did I misunderstand something about the normalisation?

Thanks!
 
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Josh1079 said:
Hi, I'm reading about the wave packet solution to the dirac equation but in the book I'm reading it states that \int \frac {d^3p} {(2\pi)^3 2E} [a u e^{-ipx} + b^\dagger \bar{v} e^{ipx}

The normalisation constant confuses me. I guess the 2pi^3 is reasonalbe. However, the 1/2E seems a bit weird to me. I thought it should always be something of the order of (-1/2) of E. Did I misunderstand something about the normalisation?

Thanks!

This might be the reason:

  • Start with a 4-D Fourier transform: \int d^4 p A(p_\mu) u e^{- i p_\mu x^\mu}
  • Realize that the only values of p_\mu that can contribute satisfy: (p_0)^2 - \vec{p}^2 - m^2 = 0 (ignoring factors of c and \hbar)
  • This implies that A(p_\mu) has the form a(\vec{p}) \delta((p_0)^2 - \vec{p}^2 - m^2)
  • Just a fact about the delta-function: \int dx Q(x) \delta(f(x)) = \frac{Q(x_0)}{f'(x_0)} where x_0 is a zero of f(x) and f'(x) means the derivative of f with respect to x. (If f(x) has multiple zeros, then there is a term like that for each zero)
  • So if we let E be the value of p_0 satisfying (p_0)^2 - \vec{p}^2 - m^2 = 0, then integrating over dp_0 gives: \frac{1}{\frac{d}{dp_0}( (p_0)^2 - \vec{p}^2 - m^2)} = \frac{1}{2 p_0} = \frac{1}{2E}
 
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Hi stevendaryl, thanks for the reply! I think I roughly understand what your writing and it seems reasonable. There is just one more question that I'm a bit curious about. So are you trying to say that the reason why there is a factor 1/2E in the expression is because it's doing a 4D Fourier transform? Does this mean that the expressions with 1/√(2E) is doing a 3D Fourier transform? I'm also a bit curious about the difference.

Thanks!
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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