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Is this known? If so: Can anyone provide a reference of the corresponding proof? Thanks in advance for any information on this.

- Thread starter FaustoMorales
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- #1

- 24

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Is this known? If so: Can anyone provide a reference of the corresponding proof? Thanks in advance for any information on this.

- #2

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- #3

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That takes care of it. Thanks!

- #4

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This clever idea can be used to prove something more general: Given positive integers m and j, with m > j >= m/2, the number of partitions of m into j parts is the number of partitions of m-j.

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