Undergrad On limit of convolution of function with a summability kernel

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The discussion focuses on proving a corollary related to a theorem in Fourier Analysis concerning summability kernels. The corollary states that if a sequence of positive summability kernels is defined on an interval and a function is continuous at a point, the limit of the integral of the kernel times the function equals the function's value at that point. Participants express uncertainty about whether the interval in the corollary is the same as in the theorem and discuss the implications of changing variables in the proof. They also explore whether positive summability kernels are even functions and if the transformation of the kernel maintains its properties. The conversation emphasizes the application of the main theorem to facilitate the proof of the corollary.
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I'm stuck at proving a corollary regarding the limit of a convolution with a positive summability kernel and an arbitrary function.
I'm reading the following theorem in Fourier Analysis and its Applications by Vretblad.

Theorem 2.1 Let ##I=(-a,a)## be an interval (finite or infinite). Suppose that ##(K_n)_{n=1}^\infty## is a sequence of real-valued, Riemann-integrable functions defined on ##I##, with the following properties:
1) ##K_n(s)\geq 0##,
2)##\int_{-a}^a K_n(s)ds=1##, and
3) if ##\delta>0##, then ##\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\int_{\delta<|s|<a} K_n(s)ds=0.##
If ##f:I\to\mathbb{C}## is integrable and bounded on ##I## and continuous for ##s=0##, we then have $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_{-a}^a K_n(s)f(s)ds=f(0).$$

Corollary 2.1 If ##(K_n)_{n=1}^\infty## is a positive summability kernel on the interval ##I##, ##s_0## is an interior point of ##I##, and ##f## is continuous at ##s=s_0##, then $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_I K_n(s)f(s_0-s)ds=f(s_0).$$

The proof is left as an exercise (do the change of variables ##s_0-s=u##.

It's silly, but I'd like to prove the corollary and I'm getting stuck. I'm a little unsure if ##I## in the corollary is also of the form ##(-a,a)##. Moreover, the change of variables as suggested gives us ##s=s_0-u##, so ##K_n(s)## becomes ##K_n(s_0-u)##. Is this a kernel still centered at ##0##? If I'm understanding things right, the author alludes to using $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_{-a}^a K_n(s)f(s)ds=f(0),$$ from theorem 2.1 to prove the corollary. Appreciate any help.
 
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I is throghout assumed to be of the form (-a,a).

Easier than substitution is to define g(s) \equiv f(s_0 - s) so that g(0) = f(s_0) and apply the theorem to g.
 
Thank you @pasmith.

1. Do you know if positive summability kernels (i.e. a sequence of functions satisfying 1), 2) and 3) above) are even functions?
2. It looks to me that if ##K_n(s)## is a positive summability kernel, then so is ##K_n(-s)##. Is this right?

When we make the substitution ##u=-s## in the integral in the corollary, we obtain $$\int_I K_n(-u)f(s_0+u)du,$$ where ##I=(-a,a)## remains unchanged. If ##K_n(-u)=K_n(u)## or if ##K_n(-u)## is also a positive summability kernel over ##I##, and we set ##s_0=0##, then we can apply the theorem.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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