What is the connection between oracles and quantum physics?

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on the relationship between oracles, like Nostradamus and Edgar Cayce, and quantum physics. Participants express skepticism about the existence of oracles, noting that quantum mechanics does not provide explanations for their supposed abilities. The conversation highlights that many physicists dismiss these phenomena as pseudoscience. There is a call for clarity on what constitutes an oracle within the framework of quantum physics. Ultimately, the consensus is that quantum physics does not validate the claims associated with oracles.
jahrastafaray
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
Hi!

As a layman in quantum physics area i, without any sort of prejudice or judgement of any kind, would like to know how does quantum physics explain the phenomena of oracles.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
jahrastafaray said:
how does quantum physics explain the phenomena of oracles.
OK, I'll bite. What's 'the phenomena of oracles'?
 
Doc Al said:
OK, I'll bite. What's 'the phenomena of oracles'?

Hey. maybe i should have written more clearly. what i wonder is that oracles such as nostradamus or edgar cayce are phenomena themselves. how do quantum physics explain such phenomena? what is an oracle according to quantum physics.
 
I would guess that if such an oracle ever existed, it would be fully explained by the density matrix as anything else. I do, however, believe that most physicists don't believe in such phenomena as oracles as the ones you describe.
 
jahrastafaray said:
what i wonder is that oracles such as nostradamus or edgar cayce are phenomena themselves.
Quantum mechanics has nothing to say about the supposed abilities of such "oracles". And discussion of such pseudoscience is not permitted on PF. (See our rules, which are linked at the top of every page.)
 

Thread 'Two equivalent statements of time reversal symmetric Hamiltonian'

Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?
View full post »

Similar threads

High School Frequency of an EM wave in Classical and Quantum Physics
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
High School Quantum Superposition And A Coin
  • · Replies 25 ·
Replies
25
Views
4K
Undergrad Prof Mike Wiest's proposed link between quantum and consciousness
  • · Replies 18 ·
Replies
18
Views
1K
Undergrad What is the Definition of Quantum Physics?
  • · Replies 41 ·
2
Replies
41
Views
6K
Undergrad Frequency of EM waves in classical and quantum physics
  • · Replies 26 ·
Replies
26
Views
3K
High School Quantum entanglement and hidden variables
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
Undergrad Is quantum interference an instantaneous consequence of superposition ?
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
Undergrad States and observables in quantum mechanics
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
Undergrad Oracle questions in Grover's Algorithm
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Undergrad What are anomalies in quantum field theory?
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K