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Hak

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In Classical Physics, when a charged particle oscillates, it emits an electromagnetic wave, and the frequency of the wave depends on the frequency with which the particle oscillates.

But in Quantum Physics, when an excited atom emits a photon, the energy of the photon depends on the amplitude of the quantum jumps that the emitting electron makes (if it jumps one level, the photon will have a certain energy; if it jumps two, a higher energy, and so on). So the frequency of the electromagnetic wave corresponding to the photon will depend on the amplitude of the quantum jumps made by the electron.

I do not understand why these two cases are so different. In analogy with the classical case, shouldn't the frequency of the wave emitted by the atom depend on the frequency with which the electron makes quantum jumps? Or is there a quantum explanation of the classical case that I do not understand?

I know that one cannot use classical physics to explain quantum phenomena, but it seems strange to me that there is this asymmetry in the two cases. Sorry in advance if the question is dumb; I am approaching Quantum Physics because it is a subject I am so passionate about, but I have a totally different background... Thanks if you can give me some clarity!

But in Quantum Physics, when an excited atom emits a photon, the energy of the photon depends on the amplitude of the quantum jumps that the emitting electron makes (if it jumps one level, the photon will have a certain energy; if it jumps two, a higher energy, and so on). So the frequency of the electromagnetic wave corresponding to the photon will depend on the amplitude of the quantum jumps made by the electron.

I do not understand why these two cases are so different. In analogy with the classical case, shouldn't the frequency of the wave emitted by the atom depend on the frequency with which the electron makes quantum jumps? Or is there a quantum explanation of the classical case that I do not understand?

I know that one cannot use classical physics to explain quantum phenomena, but it seems strange to me that there is this asymmetry in the two cases. Sorry in advance if the question is dumb; I am approaching Quantum Physics because it is a subject I am so passionate about, but I have a totally different background... Thanks if you can give me some clarity!

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