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Pearson Correlation in Sleep Studies

  1. Nov 11, 2014 #1
    Hi guys, so I've been researching sleep studies and I've been looking at comparison on devices used, and most of them seem to obtain a magnitude value based on the acceleration seen on the device by the user.

    What I'm wondering about though is that the comparison between devices seem to be using the Pearson Correlation.
    Example:
    http://www.journalsleep.org/Articles/290214.pdf

    http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0165027000003642

    http://www.itc-ltd.co.jp/pdf/Kushida_et_al.pdf

    But from what I read, the Pearson correlation only works with linear correlations, while I would assume the values based here would be quite random values, and while I would imagine there is a correlation say between the devices, I wouldn't imagine it to be linear which I thought was what the Pearson correlation needed?

    Am I wrong? I will admit, I don't understand the correlation when I tried to read up on it.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 16, 2014 #2
    Thanks for the post! This is an automated courtesy bump. Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post?
     
  4. Nov 16, 2014 #3

    Stephen Tashi

    User Avatar
    Science Advisor

    People aren't likely to read specialist papers in order to find out what "a magnitude value based on the acceleration seen on the device" means. Magnitude of what? What is the goal of the investigation? What aspect of devices is being compared?
     
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