A Phase difference between electric and magnetic dipole moment

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The discussion focuses on the phase difference between electric and magnetic dipole moments in the context of parity violation (PV) measurements using optical rotation. It explains a simplified model with two levels of positive parity and one level of negative parity, highlighting how the PV Hamiltonian modifies the state of the positive parity level. The interference between the magnetic dipole transition and the PV effect is crucial for amplifying the latter, leading to a complex expression involving both real and imaginary components. The key question raised is about the necessity for one transition amplitude to be purely real and the other purely imaginary to achieve interference. Understanding this relationship is essential for accurately interpreting the experimental results related to parity violation.
kelly0303
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Hello! This question is in relation to parity violation (PV) measurements using the optical rotation technique (I can give more details/references about that, but most of it is not relevant for my question). Basically, in a simplified model, they have 2 levels (say of positive parity), g and ##e_1## connected by a magnetic dipole amplitude ##A_{M_1} = <g|M_1|e_1>##. Another level ##e_2## close to ##e_1## (such that we can ignore its effect on g) has negative parity, thus, due to parity violation Hamiltonian, ##H_{PV}##, ##e_1## becomes:

$$|e_1'>=|e_1>+\frac{<e_1|H_{PV}|e_2>}{E_2-E_1}|e_2> = |e_1>+i\eta|e_2>$$
where ##E_1## and ##E_2## are the energies of the ##e_1## and ##e_2## levels (I might have messed up some signs, but that shouldn't matter for my question) and it can be shown that in general, the PV matrix element is always a purely imaginary number, hence ##i\eta = \frac{<e_1|H_{PV}|e_2>}{E_2-E_1}##. Now, in the experiments, people make use of the interference between the M1 transition and the PV effect, in order to amplify the latter one. In the 2D space spanned by g and ##e_1'##, the off diagonal matrix element is:

$$<g|M_1|e_1>+i\eta<g|E_1|e_2> = A_{M_1} + i\eta A_{E_1}$$
and the rate is the square of its modulus. However, in order to get interference i.e. a term proportional to ##\eta A_{M_1}A_{E_1}##, both terms must be either real or imaginary. However, given that ##i\eta## is purely imaginary, this implies, that in order to get the interference ##A_{M_1}## and ##A_{E_1}## should be one purely real and the other one purely imaginary. However, I am not sure I understand why and which is which. Can someone help me figure this out? Thank you!
 
An antilinear operator ##\hat{A}## can be considered as, ##\hat{A}=\hat{L}\hat{K}##, where ##\hat{L}## is a linear operator and ##\hat{K} c=c^*## (##c## is a complex number). In the Eq. (26) of the text https://bohr.physics.berkeley.edu/classes/221/notes/timerev.pdf the equality ##(\langle \phi |\hat{A})|\psi \rangle=[ \langle \phi|(\hat{A}|\psi \rangle)]^*## is given but I think this equation is not correct within a minus sign. For example, in the Hilbert space of spin up and down, having...

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