Planetary motion in a viscous medium

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The discussion centers on the analysis of planetary motion in a viscous medium using Newton's laws and differential equations in polar coordinates. The first answer provided for part (c) is -2πAGMm, while the approach for part (d) raises questions about the validity of the derived equations. A key point is that the official solution relies on the virial theorem, which relates average kinetic and potential energy in gravitational systems. Participants emphasize that approximations are necessary due to the complexity of the system, as exact solutions are not feasible. Understanding the virial theorem clarifies the relationship between energy changes and forces in this context.
Leo Liu
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Homework Statement
none
Relevant Equations
F=ma
1605614759603.png

1605614814611.png

The answer to (c) is ##-2\pi AGMm##.
Answer to (d)
1605614872478.png


For sub-question d, I used a different approach and I don't know why the solution to (d) is an appropriate approximation.
What I did was that I use Newton's laws to obtain two differential equation in polar coordinate, as shown:
$$\text{Assume that the planet moves counterclockwise}$$
$$-\frac{GMm}{r^2}\boxed{\hat r}-Amv^2\boxed{\hat\theta} =m(\ddot r-r\dot\theta ^2)\boxed{\hat r}+m(r\ddot\theta+2\dot r \dot\theta)\boxed{\hat\theta}$$
$$\begin{cases}
-A(r\dot\theta)^2=r\ddot\theta+2\dot r\dot\theta\\
-GM/r^2=\ddot r-r\dot\theta^2\\
\end{cases}$$
I would like to know if my solution is correct, and why the official solution works. Thanks a lot.
 

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Leo Liu said:
Homework Statement:: none
Relevant Equations:: F=ma

View attachment 272709
View attachment 272711
The answer to (c) is ##-2\pi AGMm##.
Answer to (d)
View attachment 272712

For sub-question d, I used a different approach and I don't know why the solution to (d) is an appropriate approximation.
What I did was that I use Newton's laws to obtain two differential equation in polar coordinate, as shown:
$$\text{Assume that the planet moves counterclockwise}$$
$$-\frac{GMm}{r^2}\boxed{\hat r}-Amv^2\boxed{\hat\theta} =m(\ddot r-r\dot\theta ^2)\boxed{\hat r}+m(r\ddot\theta+2\dot r \dot\theta)\boxed{\hat\theta}$$
$$\begin{cases}
-A(r\dot\theta)^2=r\ddot\theta+2\dot r\dot\theta\\
-GM/r^2=\ddot r-r\dot\theta^2\\
\end{cases}$$
I would like to know if my solution is correct, and why the official solution works. Thanks a lot.
I wouldn't do it by your way, the velocity vector is, actually is$$\dot{r}\widehat{r} + r\dot{\theta}\widehat{\theta}$$, what you show is the velocity in an circular orbital, if it was a circular orbital, the radius wouldn't varies anyway :S

And, what you didn't understand in the approximation? From c we have "the radius varies to low in a period", so it is a understandable approximation.
Remember the differentials theory

$$\Delta R = \frac{dr}{dt}\Delta t$$
 

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I think your approach though it is aiming for the exact solution, has a big disadvantage:
We can't find the exact solution cause the system of ODEs you write has no closed form solution.

So we have to do approximations as the main solution suggests. All the equations for ##\Delta r## and ##\Delta t## are approximations in the given solution for d).
 
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LCSphysicist said:
what you show is the velocity in an circular orbital, if it was a circular orbital, the radius wouldn't varies anyway :S
Oh yes you are definitely correct. I found out this problem after I could edit my post. Should the first equation be ##-A[(r\dot\theta)^2+\dot r ^2]=r\ddot\theta+2\dot r\dot\theta##?

Even this is not accurate because the direction of velocity is not the same as hat theta. I think we have to assume the angle between the tangent and the velocity is phi and make use of the following identity: ##\tan\phi=\dot r/r\dot\phi##
LCSphysicist said:
And, what you didn't understand in the approximation? From c we have "the radius varies to low in a period", so it is a understandable approximation.
Remember the differentials theory
What I don't understand is why the first equation of the official solution is valid.

Thanks.
 
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Leo Liu said:
Oh yes you are definitely correct. I found out this problem after I could edit my post. Should the first equation be ##-A[(r\dot\theta)^2+\dot r ^2]=r\ddot\theta+2\dot r\dot\theta##?

Even this is not accurate because the direction of velocity is not the same as theta.

What I don't understand is why the first equation of the official solution is valid.

Thanks.
The first equation is what they call, in short words, the virial theorem. I recommend you to seek it at wikipedia.
" For gravitational attraction,... the average kinetic energy equals half of the average negative potential energy"
Knowing that E = Epot + Ekin, i think you can understand now how the equation arose ;)
Anyway, while it is approximately true in ellipse orbital, it is exactly true in circular orbits, as follows:
E = mv²/2 - GmM/r
-GmM/r² = -mv²/r (centripetal)
E = GmMr/2r² - GmM/r
E = -GmM/2r
 
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LCSphysicist said:
The first equation is what they call, in short words, the virial theorem. I recommend you to seek it at wikipedia.
This is exactly what I have been looking for. What puzzled me was the reason a small change in energy corresponded to the force times an infinitesimal movement :P
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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