GR_fan
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- TL;DR
- Question about what happens with a specific perturbation of FLRW spacetime
I'm trying to understand what sort of perturbation turns a non-singular cosmological spacetime into a singular cosmological spacetime. In other words, given a cosmological spacetime without a Big Bang singularity, what sort of perturbation would introduce a Big Bang singularity? Most likely, someone has already answered that question, but I'm trying to gain some understanding for myself. To pursue the question, I'm playing around with a specific perturbation to an FLRW spacetime represented using the line element:
[tex] ds^2 = -(1+2\Phi)dt^2 + a^2(1-2\Psi)\delta_{ij}dx^i dx^j[/tex]
where [itex]\Phi[/itex] and [itex]\Psi[/itex] are scalar fields representing the perturbation. Now, let's consider the case where the unperturbed spacetime (where [itex]\Phi=\Psi=0[/itex]) is not singular and so includes (for example) complete null geodesics. In that case, in the unperturbed spacetime, along some null geodesic with affine parameter [itex]\lambda[/itex], we can use the geodesic equation to derive:
[tex] \lambda_f - \lambda_i \propto \int_{t_i}^{t_f} a(t) dt[/tex]
Since we've assumed the spacetime includes complete null geodesics, we can take a limit on [itex]t_i[/itex] where our integral diverges. The fact that this integral diverges shows us that the null geodesic a long which we took the integral is complete in the past direction (i.e., no Big Bang singularity). Now, I'm interested in the conditions under which our perturbed spacetime also includes complete null geodesics. Using a similar procedure, we can derive the following expression:
[tex] \lambda_f - \lambda_i \propto \int_{t_i}^{t_f} a(t) \exp\left(- \int\frac{\partial_t \Phi}{1+2\Phi}dt - \int\frac{\partial_t \Psi}{1-2\Psi}dt\right)dt[/tex]
The trouble is that I don't know what to do from here. My best guess is that we should pursue the following. Our integral is basically just [itex]\int f(t, x, y, z) a(t) dt[/itex]. If there exists some constant M > 0 such that f(t, x, y, z) > M, then we can show that the integral diverges just in case [itex]\int a(t) dt[/itex] diverges. But I have no idea how to think about that condition.
Does anyone here have some ideas about how to approach this?
[tex] ds^2 = -(1+2\Phi)dt^2 + a^2(1-2\Psi)\delta_{ij}dx^i dx^j[/tex]
where [itex]\Phi[/itex] and [itex]\Psi[/itex] are scalar fields representing the perturbation. Now, let's consider the case where the unperturbed spacetime (where [itex]\Phi=\Psi=0[/itex]) is not singular and so includes (for example) complete null geodesics. In that case, in the unperturbed spacetime, along some null geodesic with affine parameter [itex]\lambda[/itex], we can use the geodesic equation to derive:
[tex] \lambda_f - \lambda_i \propto \int_{t_i}^{t_f} a(t) dt[/tex]
Since we've assumed the spacetime includes complete null geodesics, we can take a limit on [itex]t_i[/itex] where our integral diverges. The fact that this integral diverges shows us that the null geodesic a long which we took the integral is complete in the past direction (i.e., no Big Bang singularity). Now, I'm interested in the conditions under which our perturbed spacetime also includes complete null geodesics. Using a similar procedure, we can derive the following expression:
[tex] \lambda_f - \lambda_i \propto \int_{t_i}^{t_f} a(t) \exp\left(- \int\frac{\partial_t \Phi}{1+2\Phi}dt - \int\frac{\partial_t \Psi}{1-2\Psi}dt\right)dt[/tex]
The trouble is that I don't know what to do from here. My best guess is that we should pursue the following. Our integral is basically just [itex]\int f(t, x, y, z) a(t) dt[/itex]. If there exists some constant M > 0 such that f(t, x, y, z) > M, then we can show that the integral diverges just in case [itex]\int a(t) dt[/itex] diverges. But I have no idea how to think about that condition.
Does anyone here have some ideas about how to approach this?