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- Without presuming anything, can anyone explain why the general consensus is that there are two questions?
Hello,
I'm joining this forum to ask two questions which have nagged me for some time. They both are presumed obvious, yet don't make sense to me. Nobody will explain their positions, which is...uh...aka science. I also have a thread for the other question.
But this one involves probability, known as the Monty Hall Problem. Please see any number of YouTube videos on this for an explanation, I'll leave it to them to explain it.
I question the predicate of all those who answer this problem. I only see one question, and one slight-of-hand suggesting there is a question when there really is not one. It appears to me that all who "explain" this get way out ahead of themselves, and are in the weeds where there is no need, and they're then speculating on (argue) stats theories which aren't based in reality, so have no answer, only argument (is it 1/2 or 1/3 probability).
Others apparently consider there to be two questions. My question is why one would consider there two questions. Please explain why the first question is a question (of any meaning/why would it factor in any statistical sense). If you're going to dictate that this is obvious, please refrain from comment. It's not obvious and it appears to me that the whole field, the many YouTube channels, everyone, is incorrect on this. I'm not trying to be a contrarian for no purpose, I genuinely see it this way and not one person who asserts that there are two questions has been able to explain, why.
The first "question", of which door to choose, is immaterial. The simplest reason that their response doesn't factor, is that the game will continue in effectively the same way no matter what they respond. There is no answer to the first question, no new information added to the paradigm. That is, no matter what, the game will continue to the second round of "question" with 2 options; one a winner and one a loser.
For the first question, the contestant could say Door 1, 2, or 3, or respond "the sun", or "blue flowers", or not answer at all, and it'd all effectively be the same. It's not a material question, it's speculation, and the result of that is never revealed to any consequence. It has no real bearing on the rest of the game. It's game show dazzle, nonsense, filling airtime, drawing attention. There is the suggestion that this factors, but it does not, it is pure suggestion.
I can illustrate if one would like:
Let's say the contestant chooses 1 of the doors without the prize, a losing door. Let's say the prize is door 2, and they choose 1 or 3. The game host removes one of the losing doors no matter what. The guest chooses 1, he removes 3. The guest chooses 3, he removes 1. Simple. Because we always know the host will remove a losing door.
The game continues, the guest "chooses" a second time, and the probability is 1/2 they'll choose right. What bearing did the first speculation, have?
Or let's say they choose door 2 with the prize. If the guest chooses 2, the host removes either 1 or 3, it doesn't matter. That's an arbitrary choice of the host. The contestant will not be told they've won, there is no new information given, the game will continue to the second round of "choice" no matter what, and, again, it'll be 1/2 probability they'll choose right.
There is never a 1/3 choice. We know the game will continue past that first round of question, and one losing door will be eliminated, and then the guest will have a 1/2 choice at the end. No matter what. This is how it works.
Will someone please explain why they think the first "choice" is in any way material?
Thank You, all. :)
I'm joining this forum to ask two questions which have nagged me for some time. They both are presumed obvious, yet don't make sense to me. Nobody will explain their positions, which is...uh...aka science. I also have a thread for the other question.
But this one involves probability, known as the Monty Hall Problem. Please see any number of YouTube videos on this for an explanation, I'll leave it to them to explain it.
I question the predicate of all those who answer this problem. I only see one question, and one slight-of-hand suggesting there is a question when there really is not one. It appears to me that all who "explain" this get way out ahead of themselves, and are in the weeds where there is no need, and they're then speculating on (argue) stats theories which aren't based in reality, so have no answer, only argument (is it 1/2 or 1/3 probability).
Others apparently consider there to be two questions. My question is why one would consider there two questions. Please explain why the first question is a question (of any meaning/why would it factor in any statistical sense). If you're going to dictate that this is obvious, please refrain from comment. It's not obvious and it appears to me that the whole field, the many YouTube channels, everyone, is incorrect on this. I'm not trying to be a contrarian for no purpose, I genuinely see it this way and not one person who asserts that there are two questions has been able to explain, why.
The first "question", of which door to choose, is immaterial. The simplest reason that their response doesn't factor, is that the game will continue in effectively the same way no matter what they respond. There is no answer to the first question, no new information added to the paradigm. That is, no matter what, the game will continue to the second round of "question" with 2 options; one a winner and one a loser.
For the first question, the contestant could say Door 1, 2, or 3, or respond "the sun", or "blue flowers", or not answer at all, and it'd all effectively be the same. It's not a material question, it's speculation, and the result of that is never revealed to any consequence. It has no real bearing on the rest of the game. It's game show dazzle, nonsense, filling airtime, drawing attention. There is the suggestion that this factors, but it does not, it is pure suggestion.
I can illustrate if one would like:
Let's say the contestant chooses 1 of the doors without the prize, a losing door. Let's say the prize is door 2, and they choose 1 or 3. The game host removes one of the losing doors no matter what. The guest chooses 1, he removes 3. The guest chooses 3, he removes 1. Simple. Because we always know the host will remove a losing door.
The game continues, the guest "chooses" a second time, and the probability is 1/2 they'll choose right. What bearing did the first speculation, have?
Or let's say they choose door 2 with the prize. If the guest chooses 2, the host removes either 1 or 3, it doesn't matter. That's an arbitrary choice of the host. The contestant will not be told they've won, there is no new information given, the game will continue to the second round of "choice" no matter what, and, again, it'll be 1/2 probability they'll choose right.
There is never a 1/3 choice. We know the game will continue past that first round of question, and one losing door will be eliminated, and then the guest will have a 1/2 choice at the end. No matter what. This is how it works.
Will someone please explain why they think the first "choice" is in any way material?
Thank You, all. :)
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