- #1

- 928

- 30

I have a doubt concerning the limit:

$$ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\pi (n)}{Li(n)} = 1 $$.

This mathematical statement does not imply that both functions converge to the same value. The main reason is that both tend to infinity as n tend to infinity. I would like to ask you if it is correct to infer that when n tends to infinity, ##\pi (n) ## and ## Li(n) ## grow at the same rate, possibly being separed by a constant.

If I am correct, is this constant known?

Best regards,

DaTario