Product of quadratic nonresidues is a residue

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the product of two quadratic nonresidues modulo a prime \( p \) is a quadratic residue. The proof utilizes group theory concepts, specifically the structure of the multiplicative group \( \mathbb{Z}_p^* \), which is cyclic. The participants confirm that if \( A \) and \( B \) are quadratic nonresidues, then their product \( AB \) can be expressed as \( g^{\text{even}} \), establishing that \( AB \) is indeed a quadratic residue. Additionally, they explore Fermat's Little Theorem and properties of quadratic residues to strengthen their arguments.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quadratic residues and nonresidues
  • Familiarity with group theory, specifically cyclic groups
  • Knowledge of Fermat's Little Theorem
  • Basic modular arithmetic and congruences
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of the Legendre symbol in relation to quadratic residues
  • Learn about the structure of the multiplicative group \( \mathbb{Z}_p^* \)
  • Explore advanced proofs involving quadratic residues using group theory
  • Investigate applications of Fermat's Little Theorem in number theory
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, number theorists, and students studying modular arithmetic and group theory, particularly those interested in quadratic residues and their properties.

Broccoli21
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Homework Statement


Prove that if p is prime, then if A is a quadratic nonresidue mod p and B is also a quadratic nonresidue mod p, then AB is a quadratic residue mod p.

Homework Equations


A is a nonresidue means A = x^2 (mod p) has no solutions

The Attempt at a Solution


I already proved that product of two residues is a residue, and that a residue and a nonresidue make a nonresidue. Also it's easy to prove by contradiction that 1/A (which always exists because p is prime) is a residue iff A is a residue.

Now as for the given question, I have actually solved it using group theory, but the class requires a proof from elementary principles. We have not covered the legendre symbol either. My proof is this:

the integers Z_p={0...p-1} form a cyclic group under multiplication, and thus have a generator g. So any integer in Z_p can be written as a power of g, so the residues are even powers and the nonresidues are odd powers. So A=g^odd and B=g^odd so AB=g^odd+odd=g^even so AB is a residue.

I can't seem to extend this to an elementary proof (using congruences and whatnot) though, and can't even see a way to start. :frown:

Thanks in advance!
 
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Broccoli21 said:
the integers Z_p={0...p-1} form a cyclic group under multiplication

This is not true.

\mathbb{Z}_p\setminus \{0\} is a cyclic group though.

What can you use?? Can you use Fermat's little theorem?
 
micromass said:
This is not true.

\mathbb{Z}_p\setminus \{0\} is a cyclic group though.

What can you use?? Can you use Fermat's little theorem?

Oh thanks for catching that. Yeah I suppose that doesn't work. Using fermat's little theorem, we know that:

a = a^p (mod p)
b = b^p (mod p)
ab = (ab)^p (mod p)

but here, I can't really see how to proceed. How do I use the fact they a and b are non-residues?

If we let q=(p-1)/2, we also get an integer such that

(ab)^2q = 1 (mod p)

but this ultimately seems to get going nowhere :|
sorry that I can't seem to see where to apply the given conditions
 
Do you know that a is a quadratic residue iff a^{(p-1)/2}=1 (mod p) and -1 otherwise??
 
I am not aware of that theorem. I managed to prove that if a is a residue, then indeed:
(everything below is mod p)
a = x^2
hence:
a^(p-1)/2 = x^p-1 = 1
to prove the opposite direction, assume that a^(p-1)/2 = 1. Then:
I can't seem to prove that in this case, a is a residue. However I did that, then because we can factor fermat's little theorem:
0 = (a^(p-1)/2 -1)(a^(p-1)/2 +1)
, the only two possible values for a^(p-1)/2 are +1 and -1 so I would be done, and this statement would imply the result of the original problem.

However I don't know how to prove that a^(p-1)/2 = 1 implies that a is a residue. Thanks for the help so far, by the way!
 
Hmmm, I see no other proof than using that there exists an element g such that all integers x with gcd(x,p)=1 can be written as g^n=x (mod p) for a certain n. But this is not a basic result.
 
I think I might have solved it. Can you check if this works?
suppose a is a quadratic nonresidue
We know in general that if:
cb=db
then
b(c−d)=0
so c=d.

Thus for b∈{1,...,p−1}, {b,2b,...,(p−1)b} is {1,...,p−1} rearranged modulo p, and for all b∈{1,...,p−1}, there is exactly one c∈{1,...,p−1} such that cb=a (mod p of course). We also note that if c=b, then c=1 or c=p-1 so since a is not a residue, c=/=b.

Thus we partition the set {1,...,p−1} into pairs with that property. Now notice that the product:

(1)(2)...(p-1)=(p-1)! contains all of these pairs, of which there are (p-1)/2.
So
(p-1)! = a^(p-1)/2

but another way to look at (p-1)! is that we can group all the numbers in a similar fashion as before, but now with cb=1. But remember that c=b iff c=1 or c=p-1. So ignore those and compute the product:

(2)(3)...(p-2)=(p-2)! = 1

now multiply by p-1:

(p-1)! = p-1 = -1.

so if we go back to equation 1), we see

a^(p-1)/2 = -1, the desired result for nonresidues.

Does this work?
 
That seems correct. Very, very nice solution!
 
Thanks Micromass!
 

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