Proof involving functional graphs and the injective property

In summary, the statement "Let G be a functional graph" was never used in the proof, but it is necessary for the argument to be consistent.
  • #1
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TL;DR Summary
The problem I’ve attempted is number 12 in the attached thumbnails. Also included a bit above the problem statement is the relevant definition (i.e. that of a functional graph). My proof is also attached.
My only qualm is that the statement “Let G be a functional graph” never came into play in my proof, although I believe it to be otherwise consistent. Can someone take a look and let me know if I missed something, please? Or is there another reason to include that piece of information?
 

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  • #2
Here’s an update with things written out:

Definition:

Let ##G## be a graph. ##G## is a functional graph if and only if ##(x_1,y_1) \in G## and ##(x_1,y_2) \in G## implies ##y_1=y_2##.

Problem statement, as written:

Let ##G## be a functional graph. Prove that ##G## is injective if and only if for arbitrary graphs ##J## and ##H##: ##G \circ (H \cap J) = (G \circ H) \cap (G \circ J).##

I am concerned with the direction of the biconditional proving that ##G## is injective. I have completed a proof which seems consistent to me, but does not utilize the premise of ##G## being a functional graph anywhere in the argument (including the other direction of the biconditional). Is it simply necessary, a priori, for a graph to be a functional graph in order for it to be considered injective?

I can post my proof if needed, but here is the gist: I suppose the antecedent (assume for arbitrary graphs ##J,H## that the equality written above holds). Then I proceed via contradiction, supposing (to the contrary) ##G## is not injective. This brings into existence two elements (ordered pairs) of ##G## with unequal first elements, but equal second elements. From here, I construct ##J,H## such that I may use the equality given above to show that the unequal first elements, in fact, are equal- a contradiction.

*Nowhere do I use the fact that ##G## is a functional graph. For some reason, this isn’t sitting well. Is my conjecture above true about graphs unable to be considered injective if they are not first classified as functional?
 

1. What is a functional graph?

A functional graph is a type of graph that represents a mathematical function. It consists of points on a coordinate plane where the x-values are inputs and the y-values are outputs of the function.

2. How do you determine if a graph represents a function?

To determine if a graph represents a function, you can use the vertical line test. If a vertical line can be drawn through the graph and only intersects the graph at one point, then it is a function. If the vertical line intersects the graph at more than one point, then it is not a function.

3. What is the injective property of a function?

The injective property, also known as the one-to-one property, means that each input of a function has a unique output. In other words, no two different inputs can have the same output.

4. How do you prove that a function is injective using a graph?

To prove that a function is injective using a graph, you can use the horizontal line test. If a horizontal line can be drawn through the graph and only intersects the graph at one point, then the function is injective. If the horizontal line intersects the graph at more than one point, then the function is not injective.

5. Can a function be both injective and non-injective?

No, a function cannot be both injective and non-injective. The injective property is a binary property, meaning a function can either have it or not have it. A function cannot have both unique and non-unique outputs for different inputs.

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