Proof involving some inequality

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Difficulty with some inequality

Suppose that one has three numbers, [tex]v_j^0[/tex] for j=1, 2, and 3, and let their absolute values be less than or equal to 1. Suppose that one has nine continuous functions [tex]c_{jk}[/tex] all of which are bounded, and thus all of which are bounded by an amount [tex]\tfrac{k}{3}[/tex].

Define

[tex]v_j^{(1)}(s)=v_j^0+\int_0^s \sum_{k=1}^3 c_{jk}(\sigma) v_k^0 d\sigma[/tex]

and

[tex]v_j^{(n)}(s)=v_j^0+\int_0^s \sum_{k=1}^3 c_{jk}(\sigma) v_k^{(n-1)}(\sigma) d\sigma[/tex]

It is perfectly understandable why

[tex]|v_j^{(1)}-v_j^0| \le ks[/tex],

but not so clear why

[tex]|v_j^{(n)}-v_j^{(n-1)}| \le \frac{k^n s^n}{n!}[/tex].

Somehow, one is supposed to be able to divide by n, but I do not see how is able to.
 
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If we set ##v_j^{(0)}=1## and ##c_{ji}=\dfrac{k}{3}## then we get ##v_j^{(1)}(s)=1+ks## and the one is the culprit for the denominator ##n!##. This is because in the second step we get ##v_j^{(2)}(s)=1+ks+\dfrac{k^2s^2}{2}## and the difference will be ##|v_j^{(2)}(s)-v_j^{(1)}(s)| =\dfrac{k^2s^2}{2}## and so on.

This example is somehow the worst case scenario, but it illustrates what happens. Now you have to generalize this for arbitrary ##c_{ji}(\sigma)## and ##v_j^{(0)}##, i.e. within the given constraints.