Proof of Homeomorphism: An Example

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beetle2
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Hi Guy's
I need to show that two spaces are Homeomorphic for a given function between them.
Is there an online example of a proof.

A lot of text on the web tells you what it needs to be a homeomorphism but I not an example of a proof. I just want an good example I can you to help me.

Thanks in advance
 
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The definition of homeomorphism (map is continuous, as is its inverse) is also the strategy for the proof.
 
What you gotten down so far? Is the domain connected? The codomain Hausdorff?
 
Last edited:
What I've got so far is...

I must say in advance that this is an assignment question.

I have been given the following.

Let [itex](X,T)[/itex] be a topological space. Let I := [itex][0,1]:= {t \in \Real \mid 0 \leq t \leq 1}[/itex]
be endowed with the Euclidean topology. Prove that for each [itex]\lambda \in [0,1][/itex] the function:

[itex]i_{\lambda}: X \rightarrow X \times I, x \rightarrow(x,\lambda)[/itex]

is a homeomorphism of X onto [itex]im(i_{\lambda})[/itex], where [itex]X \times I[/itex] is endowed with the product topology.

I know that if two spaces are homeomorhic you need a function between the spaces that satisfy.


1: F is one-one
2: F is onto
3; A subset [itex]A \subset X[/itex]is open if and only if [itex]f(A)[/itex] is open.



Therfore we need to show that the inverse function [itex]i_{\lambda}^{-1}(t_0 \times \sigma_{\lambda})[/itex] is open in A whenever

[itex](t_0 \times \sigma_{\lambda})[/itex] is open in [itex]X \times I[/itex] where [itex]t \in T[/itex]


but [itex](t_0 \times \sigma_{\lambda})[/itex] open implies [itex]t_0 \in T[/itex]
, [itex]\sigma_{\lambda} = [\lambda - \epsilon_{1},\lambda - \epsilon_{2}}[/itex] and [itex]i_{\lambda}^{-1}(t_0 \times \sigma_{\lambda}) = t_0[/itex]

Since [itex](x,\lambda) \in t_0 \times \sigma_{\lambda i})[/itex]implies [itex]x \in t_0 , \lambda \in \sigma_{\lambda}[/itex]

Therefore [itex]i_{\lambda}[/itex] is a homeomorphism
 
beetle2 said:
What I've got so far is...

I

I know that if two spaces are homeomorhic you need a function between the spaces that satisfy.


1: F is one-one
2: F is onto
3; A subset [itex]A \subset X[/itex]is open if and only if [itex]f(A)[/itex] is open.


<snip>

[itex](t_0 \times \sigma_{\lambda})[/itex] is open in [itex]X \times I[/itex] where [itex]t \in T[/itex]


but [itex](t_0 \times \sigma_{\lambda})[/itex] open implies [itex]t_0 \in T[/itex]
, [itex]\sigma_{\lambda} = [\lambda - \epsilon_{1},\lambda - \epsilon_{2}}[/itex] and [itex]i_{\lambda}^{-1}(t_0 \times \sigma_{\lambda}) = t_0[/itex]

Since [itex](x,\lambda) \in t_0 \times \sigma_{\lambda i})[/itex]implies [itex]x \in t_0 , \lambda \in \sigma_{\lambda}[/itex]

Therefore [itex]i_{\lambda}[/itex] is a homeomorphism


I think it may be clearer if you invert the order here: in order to show that
(X,TX) and (Y,TY are homeomorphic to each other,
you must find a function f so that :

1) f is continuous

2)f^-1 is also continuous.

From these it follows that f has to be bijective. So in this case, first show continuity
of f :

1)take an open set in XxI product ( or take a basic or subbasic open set, easier)

and show its inverse image is open in X . Then show that f-1 is also

continuous; like you said, this implies that if you take any O open in X , then

f-1(O) must be open in the product space XxI


HTH.