Joystar77
- 122
- 0
Let p and q be propositions. Use logical equivalences to show that
( p ^ ( ~ ( ~ p V q))) V ( p ^ q) = p
( p ^ ( ~ ( ~ p V q))) V ( p ^ q) = p
The discussion focuses on proving the logical equivalence (p ∧ (~(~p ∨ q))) ∨ (p ∧ q) = p using established logical equivalences, specifically De Morgan's laws and double negation. Participants emphasize the importance of correctly applying these laws and suggest using LaTeX for clarity in notation. The conversation highlights common misunderstandings regarding the application of logical equivalences and the necessity of clear communication in mathematical proofs.
PREREQUISITESStudents of mathematics, logic enthusiasts, and anyone involved in formal proofs or studying propositional logic will benefit from this discussion.
I assume by "slash bar" you mean negation. In plain text, you can use the following notations.Joystar1977 said:Can I write this p and q propositions as follows and use this logical equivalence that involves the following:
p arrow q = slash bar q arrow slash bar p
The phrase "solve p and q being propositions" makes no sense to me. You need to prove an equality (in this case, better called equivalence) using other equalities.Joystar1977 said:Does this solve p and q being propositions and using logical equivalences to show that
( p ^ (~ (~ p V q))) V (p ^ q) = p
These equivalences, while correct, have nothing to do with De Morgan's law.Joystar1977 said:Can I use the following logical equivalences where p and q are propositions where it shows I am using DeMorgan's Law?
\begin{array}{c}\text{Let }p\text{ and }q\text{ be propositions.} \\<br /> \text{Use logical equivalences to show that:} \\ \bigg\{p \wedge \big[\sim(\sim\!p \vee q)\big]\bigg\} \vee (p \wedge q) \:\Leftrightarrow \: p \end{array}
Evgeny.Makarov said:These equivalences, while correct, have nothing to do with De Morgan's law.
Could you say how many completed examples from your textbook or lecture notes that deal with proving equivalences like the one in post #1 have you seen and understood? Look specifically at applications of De Morgan's law. Then do the same for ~(~p \/ q), which is a subformula of (p ^ (~(~p V q))) V (p ^ q).
And please consider the notation suggestion in post #4 or use LaTeX because otherwise your formulas are hard to read.
soroban said:Hello, Joystar1977!
\begin{array}{cccccccc}<br /> 1. & \bigg\{p \wedge \big[\sim(\sim\!p \vee q)\big]\bigg\} \vee (p \wedge q) && 1. & \text{Given} \\<br /> 2. & \bigg\{p \wedge \big(p\: \wedge \sim\!q\big)\bigg\} \vee (p \wedge q) && 2. & \text{DeMorgan} \\ <br /> 3. & \bigg\{(p \wedge p)\: \wedge \sim\! q\bigg\} \vee (p \wedge q) && 3. & \text{Assoc.} \\ <br /> 4. & (p\: \wedge \sim\!q) \vee (p \wedge q) && 4. & s \wedge s \,=\,s \\ \\<br /> 5. & p \wedge (\sim\!q \vee q) && 5. & \text{Distr.} \\ \\<br /> 6. & p \wedge T && 6. & s \:\vee \sim\!s \,=\,T \\ \\<br /> 7. & p && 7. & s \wedge T \,=\,s \end{array}
I know it's pretty obvious but I just want to make certain: \text{~} s \wedge s = T represents "Tautology." Is this correct?soroban said:7. & p && 7. & s \wedge T \,=\,s \end{array}[/tex]
No, in step 6 Soroban has $s\lor\neg s=T$, which means that the truth value of $s\lor\neg s$ is T (Truth) regardless of the truth value of $s$. By definition, $s\lor\neg s$ is a tautology.topsquark said:I know it's pretty obvious but I just want to make certain: \text{~} s \wedge s = T represents "Tautology." Is this correct?