- #1
praharmitra
- 311
- 1
Proof of something...
I posted this in the calculus section...but no reply... I came across this while studying the most general noether's theorem which I will later apply to quantum field theory. So I am posting this here, hoping that some one would have come across this while studying qft
I was learning noether's theorem and I came up with something that I can't seem to prove.
Prove -
[tex] d (\delta x) = \delta (d x)[/tex]
I was trying to prove the more general expression
[tex] d (\delta f) = \delta (d f)[/tex]
where f( x, y, z, t, ...) is a function of n variables.
If i could prove the first then the second is proved...any help?
I posted this in the calculus section...but no reply... I came across this while studying the most general noether's theorem which I will later apply to quantum field theory. So I am posting this here, hoping that some one would have come across this while studying qft
I was learning noether's theorem and I came up with something that I can't seem to prove.
Prove -
[tex] d (\delta x) = \delta (d x)[/tex]
I was trying to prove the more general expression
[tex] d (\delta f) = \delta (d f)[/tex]
where f( x, y, z, t, ...) is a function of n variables.
If i could prove the first then the second is proved...any help?