# Prove or find counterexamples

## Main Question or Discussion Point

..using only the definition of the binary product:

for any sets A, B, C in a universe U:

(A x B) x C = A x (B x C)

I have no clue how to even get started with this one. Somebody help me please!!

Related Set Theory, Logic, Probability, Statistics News on Phys.org
Typically you would want to show that both inclusions are true....but in this case.....is the element $$((a,b),c) = (a,(b,c))$$ ?

Typically you would want to show that both inclusions are true....but in this case.....is the element $$((a,b),c) = (a,(b,c))$$ ?
Yes, they're equal. It's called the Associative Property of Multiplication.

The property which states that for all real numbers a, b, and c, their product is always the same, regardless of their grouping:
(a . b) . c = a . (b . c)

I'm sorry..I didn't read the your post correctly if that's the case..was thinking cartesian product.

HallsofIvy