Proving A is Not Finite: B is Not Finite

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that if set B is not finite and is a subset of set A, then A must also be not finite. Participants are exploring definitions and properties related to infinite sets and bijections.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are examining the implications of B being a proper subset of A and discussing the nature of bijections between sets. Questions are raised about the definition of extending a function from B to A and the necessity of certain properties of the sets involved.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with various participants offering different perspectives on the proof. Some suggest alternative methods to demonstrate the infinite nature of A, while others seek clarification on the definitions and assumptions being used.

Contextual Notes

There is uncertainty regarding whether sets A and B are closed, which may affect the application of certain concepts. Additionally, the use of cardinality theorems is mentioned as a potential avenue for proof.

Ka Yan
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There is a simple problem, and I gave my simple prove. Could anybody help me check whether it is correct:

Show that if B is not finite and [tex]{B}\subset{A}[/tex], then A is not finite.

My prove:
Since B is not finite, there exists a bijection of B into one of its proper subset, C, say, and denote the function to be f: [tex]{B}\rightarrow{C}[/tex].
Since B is a proper subset of A, as an extension of f to A,there exist a (some) bijiection(s), say g, such that g: [tex]{A}\rightarrow{C}[/tex]. And thus g maps A onto its proper subset, A cannot be finite. Hense A is infinite.

Thks!
 
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What, precisely, do you mean by "an extension of f to A". In other words, what, exactly, is g?
 
You should also notice that there doesn't generally exist a bijection of A to C. Which is ok, because to show A is infinite you don't need a bijection with C, you only need one with 'some subset' of A.
 
can't you simply say if [tex]{B}\subset{A}[/tex]

n [tex]\le[/tex] cardinality of (B) [tex]\leq[/tex] cardinality of (A) for all n in N.

So A is not finite.
 
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fakrudeen said:
can't you simply say if [tex]{B}\subset{A}[/tex]

n [tex]\le[/tex] cardinality of (B) [tex]\leq[/tex] cardinality of (A) for all n in N.

So A is not finite.

Yes, if you have cardinality theorems available. Ka Yan appears to want to prove it using the definition that a set is infinite if there exists a bijection with a proper subset of itself.
 
Yes, thanks gentlemen.

That, I was originally considered, if f is a function on a subset B of A, then an "extension" of f from B to A is that, exist a function g on A, such that g(x)=f(x) for all x in B.

But B and A are seem necessary to be closed, and I didnt quite sure if those A and B are closed or not to asure the concept "extension" be apply.

Besides, my classmate gave me another way:
construct a sequense {an} by: take a0[tex]\in[/tex]B, a1 [tex]\in[/tex] B-{a0}, a2 [tex]\in[/tex] B-{a0, a1}, and so on. And this sequense is infinite, and all belong to A, thus A is infinite.
I don't quite well remember the constructing process, and I showed just what he meant.
 
Here's another way. Consider the subset D=(A-B) union C. It's a proper subset of A since C is a proper subset of B. Define g(x)=f(x) for x in B and g(x)=x for x in A-B. g is a bijection of A with a proper subset D. So A is infinite. I think that's the 'extension' you were after.
 
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