Proving asymptotics to sequences

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter CRGreathouse
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Asymptotics Sequences
Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
1 reply · 3K views
Messages
2,832
Reaction score
0
Suppose I have a sequence

[tex]a_0 = 1[/tex]

[tex]a_n = \sum_{k=1}^n f(k)\cdot a_{n-k}[/tex]

where f(n) is a known function (in binomial coefficients, powers, and the like).

In general, how would I go about proving that [itex]a_n\sim g(n)[/itex]? I'm working on more closely estimating the function by calculating its value for large n, along with first and second differences. (Suggestions on better methods are welcome, though I think I'm nearly there -- the second differences look suspiciously hyperbolic.)

Any help would be appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
umm..if we had the sequence :

[tex]a_n +b_n = \sum_{k=1}^n f(k)\cdot a_{n-k}[/tex]

replace the sum by an integral so:

[tex]a(n)+b(n) = \int_{k=1}^n dkf(k)a(n-k)[/tex]

if you obtain A(s) F(s) and B(s) as the Laplace transform of a(n) b(n) and f(k)

[tex]A(s)+B(s)=F(s)A(s)[/tex] (using the properties of "convolution" )

invertng you could get an asymptotic expression for a(n)