Proving Irreducible Markov Chains not Martingales

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Can someone prove that an irreducible markov chain on a finite state space {0,1,...,m} is not a Martingale?
 
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Well, if [itex]S_n[/itex] is some irreduceable Markov chain with finite state space. For it to also be a Martingale would require [itex]E(S_{n+1}|S_n) = S_n[/itex]. Consider the case where [itex]S_n = 0[/itex]. Then the Martingale condition would be [itex]E(S_{n+1}|S_n=0) = 0[/itex], which would require that [itex]P(S_{n+1}=0|S_n=0)=1[/itex], which violates the assumption of irreducibility. So, an irreducible Markov Chain with finite state space cannot be a Martingale.

Notice that this is not the case for Markov Chains with infinite state spaces. Since there is no "edge" to the state space, it's easy to construct non-trivial conditional distributions with the required expected values, which then gives an irreducible chain. Can you think of an example?
 
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Thank you very much for your reply.
quadraphonics said:
Consider the case where [itex]S_n = 0[/itex]. Then the Martingale condition would be [itex]E(S_{n+1}|S_n=0) = 0[/itex], which would require that [itex]P(S_{n+1}=0|S_n=0)=1[/itex], which violates the assumption of irreducibility.

Why do you assume that [itex]S_n = 0[/itex]. Moreover why is [itex]P(S_{n+1}=0|S_n=0)=1[/itex]?

quadraphonics said:
Since there is no "edge" to the state space, it's easy to construct non-trivial conditional distributions with the required expected values, which then gives an irreducible chain. Can you think of an example?

I don't understand what do you mean by 'no "edge" to the state space'.
 
I'm confused too. I understand the Martingale condition, but why must that imply [itex]P(S_{n+1} = 0| S_{n} = 0) = 1[/itex]?

If [itex]P(S_{n+1} = -1 | S_{n} = 0) = 0.5[/itex] and [itex]P(S_{n+1} = 1 | S_{n} = 0) = 0.5[/itex] then the Martingale condition still holds because the expected value is still 0. Is this right or am I missing something?
 
Boxcar Billy said:
If [itex]P(S_{n+1} = -1 | S_{n} = 0) = 0.5[/itex] and [itex]P(S_{n+1} = 1 | S_{n} = 0) = 0.5[/itex] then the Martingale condition still holds because the expected value is still 0. Is this right or am I missing something?

The issue is that [itex]S_{n+1}=-1[/itex] is not in the state space, which, remember, consists of [itex]\{0, ... , m\}[/itex]. If the state-space is infinite, then your approach would always work, as there would always be valid parts of the state space both above and below the current state. But for a finite state space, it's impossible to construct non-trivial conditional distributions for [itex]S_n=0[/itex] and [itex]S_n=m[/itex] that satisfy the Martingale condition.
 
BTW, the Markov Chain with countable state space and transition probability [itex]P(S_{n+1}=s+1|S_n = s) = P(S_{n+1}=s-1|S_n = s)=1/2[/itex] is the (discrete, symmetric) Random Walk, which is a classic example of a martingale.
 
Mr.quadraphonics, I have just started learning Martingales in the classical way(i.e. measure theoretic).
The definition for a sequence of integrable random variables [itex]S_n[/itex] to be a Martingale with respect to a filtration [itex]\mathcal{F}_n[/itex], if (1) [itex]S_n[/itex] is [itex]\mathcal{F}_n[/itex] measurable and (2) [itex]E[S_{n+1}|\mathcal{F}_n]=S_n[/itex].

My questions to you are the following:
1) How can you assume that [itex]S_n=0[/itex]?
2) How can you condition [itex]S_n[/itex] instead of [itex]\mathcal{F}_n[/itex]?
3) Moreover, can you define some stopping time [itex]\tau[/itex] so that the stopped process is a Martingale?

Thank you very much for all your replies.
 
Edwinkumar said:
1) How can you assume that [itex]S_n=0[/itex]?

The irreducibility condition on a Markov Chain is that you can start to any state and, given some finite number of steps, it's possible to get to any state. So, to prove that a Markov Chian is NOT irreducible (which is what we're doing here), you only have to exhibit a single state from which it is not possible to get to some other state. I chose [itex]S_n = 0[/itex], since I happen to know that this is such a state ([itex]S_n=m[/itex] will also work, for the same reasons).

Edwinkumar said:
2) How can you condition [itex]S_n[/itex] instead of [itex]\mathcal{F}_n[/itex]?

That's basically a shorthand. The underlying, general definition of the martingale works in terms of filtrations, but we sometimes abbreviate this by instead referring to a random variable defined on the same [itex]\sigma[/itex]-algebra. If you're taking a measure-theoretic probability class, they'll probably cover this issue explicitly.

Edwinkumar said:
3) Moreover, can you define some stopping time [itex]\tau[/itex] so that the stopped process is a Martingale?

A stopping time with respect to what stochastic process? A finite-state Markov Chain? Or a martingale?
 
quadraphonics said:
A stopping time with respect to what stochastic process? A finite-state Markov Chain? Or a martingale?
With respect to the finite state irreducible markov chain.

quadraphonics said:
Notice that this is not the case for Markov Chains with infinite state spaces. Since there is no "edge" to the state space, it's easy to construct non-trivial conditional distributions with the required expected values, which then gives an irreducible chain. Can you think of an example?

I don't understand why is it not working in case of a an irreducible Markov chain with infinite state space. Can you please explain to me?
Thanks.
 
Edwinkumar said:
With respect to the finite state irreducible markov chain.

Maybe [itex]\sum_{i=0}^{n}S_i/n[/itex] would work?

Edwinkumar said:
I don't understand why is it not working in case of a an irreducible Markov chain with infinite state space. Can you please explain to me?

Well, if the state space if (doubly) infinite: [itex]S_n \in \mathbb{Z}[/itex], then the Random Walk construction mentioned in the previous posts is both an irreducible Markov Chain and a martingle. The Random Walk, recall, is when the transition matrix for the Markov Chain is given by [itex]P(S_{n+1}=s+1|S_n=s)=P(S_{n+1}=s-1|S_n=s)=0.5[/itex].
 
quadraphonics said:
Maybe [itex]\sum_{i=0}^{n}S_i/n[/itex] would work?[/itex].
No! I want a stopping time(an integer valued random variable) [itex]\tau[/itex] for my finite state irreducible markov chain [itex]S_n[/itex] such that the stopped process [itex]S_{\tau \wedge n}[/itex] is a Martingale.
 
What about a random walk that then stops when it hits either 0 or m?
 
Do you mean either [itex]\tau=0[/itex] or [itex]\tau=m[/itex]?
Moreover, can you give an example of a Martingale which is not a Markov chain?
 
Edwinkumar said:
Do you mean either [itex]\tau=0[/itex] or [itex]\tau=m[/itex]?

No, [itex]\tau[/itex] will be whatever time step [itex]S_n[/itex] first equals either 0 or m.

Edwinkumar said:
Moreover, can you give an example of a Martingale which is not a Markov chain?

Do you mean specifically a discrete-time, finite-state martingale that is not a first-order Markov chain?
 
quadraphonics said:
No, [itex]\tau[/itex] will be whatever time step [itex]S_n[/itex] first equals either 0 or m.

Do you mean [itex]\tau(\omega)=min\{n: S_n(\omega)=0 or S_n(\omega)=m\}[/itex]?
 
Edwinkumar said:
Do you mean [itex]\tau(\omega)=min\{n: S_n(\omega)=0 or S_n(\omega)=m\}[/itex]?

Indeed.
 
Thank you very much quadraphonics.
One final question.
Can you prove that the stopped process [itex]Y_n=X_{\tau \wedge n}[/itex], where [itex]\tau(\omega)=min\{n: S_n(\omega)=0 or S_n(\omega)=m\}[/itex] is a martingale w.r.to the natural filtration [itex]\mathcal{F}_n=\sigma(X_0, X_1,..., X_n)[/itex]
 
Edwinkumar said:
Thank you very much quadraphonics.
One final question.
Can you prove that the stopped process [itex]Y_n=X_{\tau \wedge n}[/itex], where [itex]\tau(\omega)=min\{n: S_n(\omega)=0 or S_n(\omega)=m\}[/itex] is a martingale w.r.to the natural filtration [itex]\mathcal{F}_n=\sigma(X_0, X_1,..., X_n)[/itex]

Yes, it's a straightforward application of the material I've already presented in this thread. Just show that the proposed stopped Markov Chain satisfies the martingale properties.