Proving the Equation with Complex Numbers

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving an equation related to trigonometric identities, specifically using complex numbers to demonstrate the equality between a product of sine functions and a sine function of a multiple angle.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use complex numbers to rewrite the equation and analyze the coefficients of exponential terms. They express uncertainty about proving that certain coefficients equal zero. Other participants raise questions about the Taylor expansion of sine functions and clarify the role of the index in the product.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different approaches, including complex numbers and Taylor expansions. Some guidance has been offered, but no consensus or resolution has been reached yet.

Contextual Notes

The original poster expresses a desire for alternative proofs that do not rely on complex numbers. There is also a reference to a solution found on another forum, which may influence the discussion.

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Homework Statement



Prove the following equation

[tex]2^{n-1}\prod_{k=0}^{n-1}\sin(x+\frac{k\pi}{n}) = \sin(nx)[/tex]

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



Below you find my unsuccessfull attempt using complex numbers.

When you convert it to complex numbers the equality can be rewritten as

[tex]2^{n-1}\prod_{k=0}^{n-1}\frac{e^{i(x+\frac{k\pi}{n})}-e^{-i(x+\frac{k\pi}{n})}}{2i} = \frac{e^{inx}-e^{-inx}}{2i}[/tex]
[tex]i^{-n+1}\prod_{k=0}^{n-1}e^{i(x+\frac{k\pi}{n})}-e^{-i(x+\frac{k\pi}{n})} = e^{inx}-e^{-inx}[/tex]
[tex]e^{i\frac{(-n+1)\pi}{2}}\prod_{k=0}^{n-1}e^{i(x+\frac{k\pi}{n})}-e^{-i(x+\frac{k\pi}{n})} = e^{inx}-e^{-inx}[/tex]

The LHS of this equation contains terms in [tex]e^{inx}[/tex], [tex]e^{i(n-1)x}[/tex], [tex]e^{i(n-2)x}[/tex], ..., [tex]e^{-inx}[/tex].
Calculate the coefficient for each term.

[tex]\underline{e^{inx}}[/tex]

[tex]e^{i\frac{(-n+1)\pi}{2}}\frac{(-n+1)\pi}{2}\prod_{k=0}^{n-1}e^{i(x+\frac{k\pi}{n})}=e^{i\frac{(-n+1)\pi}{2}}e^{inx+i\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\frac{k\pi}{n}}=e^{inx}[/tex][tex]\underline{e^{-inx}}[/tex]

[tex]e^{i\frac{(-n+1)\pi}{2}}\prod_{k=0}^{n-1}-e^{-i(x+\frac{k\pi}{n})}=(-1)^ne^{i(-n+1)\pi}e^{-inx}=(-1)^{n}e^{-inx} = -e^{-inx}[/tex]

Now we still have to prove that for -n<k<n the coefficient of [tex]{e^{ikx}}[/tex] equals 0 to conclude the proof. But I don't know how to do this.

All suggestions, ideas are welcome. Proofs not using complex numbers will be appreciated as well.
 
Last edited:
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Taylor expansion of Sin(x+kpi/n) about the point x=kpi/n ?
 
flatmaster said:
Is k an arbitrary integer?

k is an index of the product. Of course it's not random. It goes from 0 to n-1.
 

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