[Q]Different interpretation of same wavefucntion.

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The discussion centers on the interpretation of wave functions in quantum mechanics, specifically regarding their representation as momentum eigenstates. One participant questions whether a wave function can be mathematically identical yet interpreted differently, suggesting a superposition of momentum eigenstates rather than a single eigenstate. Another contributor emphasizes that if a wave function is indeed a momentum eigenstate, measuring momentum should yield the corresponding eigenvalue without altering the state. There is also a focus on visualizing wave functions in terms of position space probability density functions. The conversation highlights the complexities and differing interpretations of wave functions in quantum theory.
good_phy
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Hi

Is it possible that same wavefuction described by math can be interpreted to different

aspect?

For instance, Some wrote wave function as same as momentum eigenstate which is

normalized

But he seemed claim that it is not momentum eigenstate even mathmetical formula is same

And he assumed it is in superposition of all momentum eigenstate in oder to find probability which eigenstate is chosen after momentum measurement

Is it possible? I know if current state is momentum eigenstate and we measure momemtum,

we must get same momentum as same as eigenvalue of that eigenstate and measurement

can not change current state.
 
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Hm, could you post the exact argument given by this person? I agree, if it is a momentum eigenstate, measurement of momentum should give the exact eigenvalue...
 
I usually try to think of the wave function as the math that leads to the position space probability density function psi^2. I can think in spatial coordinates very well, so I think of psi^2 as the fundamental thing while I treat the underlying stuff as crazy math. I'm sure I'm missing something with this viewpoint, but that's how I visualize a wave function.
 
These papers by Pegg et al. (doi: 10.1016/j.shpsb.2008.02.003 [section 4]; https://www.researchgate.net/publication/230928426_Retrodiction_in_quantum_optics [section 3.2]) seem to show that photon Bell correlations can be inferred using quantum theory in a manner that is compatible with locality by performing quantum retrodiction (i.e. inferring information about the past: e.g. https://doi.org/10.3390/sym13040586; more papers at end) where they evolve backward from Alice's measured outcome...

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