Trenton
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The 'objection' (though really too strong a term) is to the language. The opportunities for ambiguity abound. It is not to the credit of any discipline (in my view) to have terms that serve to lock out the un-initiated. The word 'curved' is a case in point. It is seductive in that people think they know what it means. As they learn more they realize their ability to go forward depends on their ability to set well established meanings aside; In other words to un-learn.
Anyway I did not know that there was no concept of gravitiational potential. I thought there was and that time dilation was (at least broadly) proportional to it. I suppose I should not be surprised as there is no concept of force, only of acceleration.
One hears various statements. I heard that 'light falls at the same rate as matter' on Patrick Moore's 700th episode of the sky at night. I took this to mean that a dot formed on a target by a laser perpendicular to the gravitational field would drop normal to said field by the same distance that an object would in the time the light would take to go from the source to the target. I wondered if this was the case as I have also heard that Newton also predicted light would be deflected but that his prediction was exactly half that predicted by GR, which has as we know has been proven by experiment. Somewhere in these two statements, there must be either an untruth or an ambiguity?
I have also heard that GR is a refinement to the laws of physics. Indeed only an extension to SR allowing it to be applied to all frames of reference rather than just inertial frames. Of the two, SR was more radical as it introduced time dilation thereby turning Newtonian mechanics on its head. As far as I know, apart from time dilaion, SR/GR just explains things differently rather than invalidate. Force as the product of mass and acceleration is still perfectly valid, even at relativistic velocities, as long as the Lorentz term is included in the equation.
Perhaps I should listen less to the conclusive sounding statements and read more of the underlying math. But on the other hand physicists are human, just like the clergy. Humans have belief systems that cause them to interpret things around them in such a way as to reinforce their beliefs. For me, learning of the belief system was a game changer that explained a great deal about how wars occur for example. Questioning statements made by humans (including yours truly) about anything is only an asymtope to rigor but it is the best we have got. Math in the pure sense might be immune to the potholes of our minds but what of the definitions of the terms in the equations?
Anyway I did not know that there was no concept of gravitiational potential. I thought there was and that time dilation was (at least broadly) proportional to it. I suppose I should not be surprised as there is no concept of force, only of acceleration.
One hears various statements. I heard that 'light falls at the same rate as matter' on Patrick Moore's 700th episode of the sky at night. I took this to mean that a dot formed on a target by a laser perpendicular to the gravitational field would drop normal to said field by the same distance that an object would in the time the light would take to go from the source to the target. I wondered if this was the case as I have also heard that Newton also predicted light would be deflected but that his prediction was exactly half that predicted by GR, which has as we know has been proven by experiment. Somewhere in these two statements, there must be either an untruth or an ambiguity?
I have also heard that GR is a refinement to the laws of physics. Indeed only an extension to SR allowing it to be applied to all frames of reference rather than just inertial frames. Of the two, SR was more radical as it introduced time dilation thereby turning Newtonian mechanics on its head. As far as I know, apart from time dilaion, SR/GR just explains things differently rather than invalidate. Force as the product of mass and acceleration is still perfectly valid, even at relativistic velocities, as long as the Lorentz term is included in the equation.
Perhaps I should listen less to the conclusive sounding statements and read more of the underlying math. But on the other hand physicists are human, just like the clergy. Humans have belief systems that cause them to interpret things around them in such a way as to reinforce their beliefs. For me, learning of the belief system was a game changer that explained a great deal about how wars occur for example. Questioning statements made by humans (including yours truly) about anything is only an asymtope to rigor but it is the best we have got. Math in the pure sense might be immune to the potholes of our minds but what of the definitions of the terms in the equations?