hi, initially I want to put into words that I looked up the link (http://physics.stackexchange.com/qu...-the-momentum-representation-from-knowing-the), and I saw that $$\langle p|[\hat x,\hat p]|\psi \rangle = \langle p|\hat x\hat p|\psi \rangle - \langle p|\hat p\hat x|\psi \rangle = \langle p|\hat x\hat p|\psi \rangle - p\langle p|\hat x|\psi \rangle$$(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

But I cannot understandhow $$\langle p|\hat p,\hat x|\psi \rangle=p\langle p|\hat x|\psi \rangle$$ is possible.

why do we have $$p$$ and $$\hat p$$ in the former and just $$p$$ in the latter???? What is the logic and proof of this kind of transformation?????? AND why do we lose the $$\hat p$$ term????

I am looking forward to your valuable responses.....

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# I Quantum mechanics getting position operator from momentum

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